A Question about the "Children of Israel"...?

Question

Salaam (Peace) to all...

Jews, Christians and Muslims alike have, in their Scriptures, accounts of the sojourn of the "Children of Israel" in Egypt, under "Pharaoh"...and on the whole, all three communities consider these accounts to be historical records.

However, as a former Christian, my question has more to do with the Christian view of the Biblical account of this saga.

The book of Exodus is most widely known for its account of the enslavement and subsequent liberation of the Children of Israel from Egypt, by the Hand of God, Himself.

However, in the book of John, Chapter 8, we read:
31 Then said Jesus to those Jews which believed on him, If ye continue in my word, then are ye my disciples indeed;
32 And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free.
33 They answered him, We be Abraham's seed, and were never in bondage to any man: how sayest thou, Ye shall be made free?
34 Jesus answered them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whosoever committeth sin...

...is the servant of sin.

Now, this presents a bit of a puzzle.

How is it that the Old Testament recalls an experience that the Jews in the New Testament deny ever existed?

When the Jews said they were NEVER in bondage to ANY man, why didn't Jesus correct them and say, "Wait, have you forgotten about Pharaoh and your bondage under him?" ?

How can both concepts/accounts be TRUE?

RM

Answer 1

Just another NT fallacy...

Answer 2

On November 23, 1937, Saudi Arabia's King Ibn Saud told British Colonel H.R.P. Dickson: "Our hatred for the Jews dates from God's condemnation of them for their persecution and rejection of Isa (Jesus) and their subsequent rejection of His chosen Prophet."

He added "that for a Muslim to kill a Jew, or for him to be killed by a Jew ensures him an immediate entry into Heaven and into the august presence of God Almighty."

The Quran not only allows slaves, but explicitly gives the slave-owner the right to have sex with them. There were no Muslim abolitionists because slavery is deeply ingrained in the religion. In fact, the Quran has more to say about enjoying sex with slaves than it does about several of the five pillars of Islam.

Mohammed owned and traded slaves. He commanded that women and children be taken as slaves in battle, and allowed them to be raped after capture. His followers continued the practice for centuries until it was forced to an end in most regions by European armies.

Unfortunately, slavery still persists in dark corners of the Muslim world today, such as Niger, the Sudan, and Mauritania. And, most tellingly, none of the articles by contemporary Muslim apologists (giving their religion retroactive credit for abolition) even bother to address the subject of modern slavery, much less condemn it.

Answer 3

Those Jews were not ever PERSONALLY in bondage in Egypt.

What's so hard to figure out about that?