This week saw the 200th anniversary of the passage of the law abolishing slavery in the British Empire, thanks to the efforts of William Wilberforce and others who refused to follow the parts of the Bible that condone slavery. Were these people forcing Christians to behave differently? Should they have been stopped from doing so? After all, what right had they to tell people to stop believing what they had always believed?
2007-03-24
05:05:59
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@ Prays toward Funky Town: Wrong argument. The New Testament depends on the Old Testament -- fulfilment of prophecy, remember? So if the OT is invalid then there's no Bible. Better try another tack.
2007-03-25
01:56:32 ·
update #1