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2007-03-17 18:21:46 · 9 answers · asked by Laura A 1 in Politics & Government Law Enforcement & Police

9 answers

Not necessarily, but often.

Domestic violence is a cateogry of crimes. Or more accurately, it is a context in which several crimes can be committed.

Let's say simple assault or stalking is a misdemeanor. It doesn't become a felony just because the target is a family member.

2007-03-17 18:26:16 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1 0

If the Domestic Violence is of a nature that an extra charge of "Serious Bodily Injury" is added on to the suspect, then it could possibly be a Felony Crime. Pushing, Shoving, and Physical acts such as these are deemed "Misdemeanor" crimes. However it is fastly becoming a BIG problem in Poor Families or Couples who do Illegal Drugs together. Usually a First offense is only a Misdemeanor. A second one is deemed a "Repeater" and becomes a felony in alot of States. A Third is considered a Habitual Offense and is punishable by imprisonment for 25 years to LIFE in prison.

GOD BLESS/GOOD LUCK!!

2007-03-17 18:53:11 · answer #2 · answered by Chuck-the-Duck 3 · 0 0

1

2016-06-12 18:27:35 · answer #3 · answered by Jesse 3 · 0 0

It depends on the State you live in. In California it is a felony when the injury to the victim is visual, such as a bloody lip, brusing, and injuries like that. Other physical contact that is deployed by force but does not leave a visable or detectable mark would be considered a mesdemeanor. Refer to your criminal code of the State you reside.

2007-03-17 18:29:34 · answer #4 · answered by vertigo_sickness 1 · 0 0

Depends on the degree of the violence, it could be a felony.

2007-03-17 18:28:18 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It depends on the state. In Oklahoma the first charge is a misdemeanor. Thereafter, it's a felony.

2007-03-17 18:25:09 · answer #6 · answered by Kim 3 · 1 0

can be, depends on teh circumstances. if its commited with a firearm, then yes, also in general depending on teh violence done and property dmaged, it can be

2007-03-17 18:55:37 · answer #7 · answered by cav 5 · 0 0

In many states it is.

2007-03-17 18:28:30 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It is if force and/or injury are involved

2007-03-17 18:27:32 · answer #9 · answered by Kye H 4 · 0 0

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