Any examination of languages will show that meanings change frequently and unpredictably. Often original meanings are lost entirely. (For an example of the challenge, just try reading Shakespeare without any interpretive notes. And he was writing only 500 years ago in a language that we call our own.)
Since the Bible texts are many thousands of years old, what effect does the fluidity of language have on modern Biblical interpretation? How certain can we be that our interpretations are correct?
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2007-03-17
14:18:17
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7 answers
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asked by
NHBaritone
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality