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If you use the Bible as a reference, please then tell us if you agree with these verses as well:

Exodus 12:29 And it came to pass, that at midnight the LORD smote all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, from the firstborn of Pharaoh that sat on his throne unto the firstborn of the captive that was in the dungeon; and all the firstborn of cattle.

God murdered the children of Egypt and also killed cattle. Is this OK in your mind? And if so, should we do that now...should we invade Egypt and murder children and cattle?

Exodus 20:10 And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.

If we catch someone cheating on their spouse, should they automatically be executed?

I can show you over 1000 scriptures similar to these

Plz justify how you pick which verses are OK to use and how you completely ignore other verses.

2007-03-17 10:13:41 · 22 answers · asked by Josh 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

There are other scriptures that give you advice on how to treat your slaves.

Do you think slavery is OK then?

There's another verse where God murders *one million people*.

Do you condone the deaths of one million people?

Help me to understand how a Christian picks which verses to believe verbatim and which ones are not fit for modern society.

If the Bible is God's word, every single verse in it should be absolute and just.

How do you explain that it is not?

2007-03-17 10:17:02 · update #1

You sheep aren't answering my questions.

I want to know how you rationalize using some verses and completely ignoring others?

Is the Bible God's word, and if so, why is it filled with so many things modern society would never allow?

2007-03-17 10:22:11 · update #2

The point, Esther, as you so graciously side stepped, is why did God say some things you agree with and say other things Christians completely ignore?

2007-03-17 10:27:12 · update #3

22 answers

Prooftexting is a common device of conservative Christians to justify untennable positions. Some will claim that the Old Testament doesn't apply anymore. Thus, they can't point to the Levitical Code that admonishes homosexual acts. If they do appeal to that code for their bigotry, then they would also have to eschew trimming their beards, wearing clothing of blended fabric, cross breeding of cattle, adulterers would have to be stoned, sex during mentruation would be prohibited, the young would have to rise before the aged, you could sell your daughter into slavery, etc., etc.

If appealing to the Pauline texts and the I Timothy text that allegedly mentions homosexuality, there are problems there as well. The main problem is that no one is sure what the words that are sometimes translated as 'homosexual' mean. The first term, arsenokoitai, is a rare Greek word that appears only in lists. There is no context out of which to derive a precise meaning. It most likely conveys some sense of sexual immorality, but we can't be sure. The second term, malakoi, means soft, and is more common. When applied to males, it most likely means effeminate (which, during that time period, would also include crying in public, doing house work, deferring to a woman, etc). It could also mean pedophiles or male prostitutes - none of which would convey a blanket translation of homosexual.

The Bible is unclear on the issue. Science has proven that homosexuality does occur in nature and is therefore natural, and that there is a genetic and biological cause, and that it is adaptive (while the research isn't conclusive, the evidence is mounting and is headed in that direction. For now, it is sufficive to say that the evidence is compelling and impressive).

At the end of the day, appealing to the Bible in order to condemn homosexual persons is the result of bad biblical scholarship, bad theology, and often the result of ignorance concerning what Biblical scholars are saying. There is not enough evidence to exclude or condemn homosexuals in the Bible or through scientific inquiry. Bigotry is the reason. Good question.

2007-03-17 10:30:42 · answer #1 · answered by Tukiki 3 · 0 0

Morality is defined by an ultimate moral authority, God. If you are a non-believer, then you have no objective moral truths.

Since God, speaking through the inspired prophets authoring the books of the bible, declared homosexuality a sin, then it is a sin. God's purpose for creating man and women was to be fruitful and populate the earth. They were created as perfect fits for one another in their bodies and minds. Again, with the fall of mankind, these purposes were conflated with seeking self gratification and excess.

Thus, homosexuality is just one of a litany of the degradation of the perfect moral state found in original creation. Homosexuality is just one of a plethora of sins now existing in the world. Like all sins, we hate the sin, but we love the sinner.

On the scale of the depravity of sin, homosexuality is no greater than other sins, just that it is practiced openly ("in your face"), so the reaction by some is over the top. Yet when we do some personal inventories of our own sinful natures, I am sure we are found wanting.

Yes, the bible records some horrific details. It is a historical account, warts and all, of God's revelation to mankind. It also reflects the contexts of the periods under question. That mankind was slipping fast into utter depravity was reason enough for the creator of mankind to act. God was perfectly within His righteousness to deliver the ultimate justice to the unrpentent. Indeed, one person has found the total body count in the bible to be over 2.2 million persons. But let's not forget the total numbers of those that have repented after hearing God's call to righteousness.

Some will say, “But isn't God unjust to judge the whole world by Christian standards?”

God judges justly. “All who sinned without [knowing] the [Mosaic] law will also perish without the law, and all who have sinned under the law will be judged by the law” (ROM 2:12).

Even pagans show “that what the law requires is written on their hearts” (ROM 2:15) if we honestly consult our hearts, we will find two truths: that we know what we ought to do and be, and that we fail to do and be that.

Here are some sources related to homosexuality for you to review.

Myths:
http://www.leaderu.com/orgs/probe/docs/homomyth.html

Theology:
http://www.leaderu.com/orgs/probe/docs/homotheo.html

Happiness to Christians is more than the needs of the flesh.

2007-03-17 17:46:27 · answer #2 · answered by Ask Mr. Religion 6 · 0 0

People think it's immoral because they've never questioned what they've been taught (it's too scary and too difficult). If they did, they'd see that the biblical basis is Leviticus which was due entirely to: a) the jewish tribe's desire to increase their numbers (to fend off their enemies) & b) the jewish tribe's desire to define their group's specialness by restricting practices that other groups engaged in. So they made it divinely mandated. Generations are taught this and we get Saul of Tarsus (St. Paul) who was conditioned in that environment as well. His personality and dynamicity resulted in not only many conversions but also inclusion into the New Testament of some of his letters to the early communities which is why we get the anti-homosexual stuff in the NT. Add to this the literal interpretation of virgin birth (a metaphor to describe an awakening of consciousness) and we get so much wackyness related to sex that anti-homosexuality becomes permanently fixed to the belief in God.

2007-03-17 17:23:09 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Killing is not the same thing as murder. As a Christian, God cannot be immoral and cannot sin. Sin results in death. Death is separation from God.

Obedience to God's law is a good thing. Disobedience is permissible, but not beneficial.

I choose love God and obey out of love for him rather out of some obligation. I do not rely on your understanding or my own. My faith is a part of me. It can no more be separated from me than my head.

The more things change, the more they remain the same. Your thoughts are not new.

2007-03-17 17:22:34 · answer #4 · answered by danny_boy_jones 5 · 0 0

Personally, I think it is a sin, but so is adultery, stealing, etc. We all sin, therefore it is not my right or anyone else's to judge homosexuals or any other sinner. Those in glass houses.....
As far as the bible goes, I think it is all in how it is interpreted. Besides how do we actually know it is the word of God? It was translated......hmm

2007-03-17 17:20:09 · answer #5 · answered by Carrie K 3 · 1 0

ya i kno exactly what u mean...but that is what happens most of the times...we ignore and deny things that do not suit us and only accept and follow things that are fine by our won standards..

but then probably things hav to change...change is progress..so sumthing that was right 1000 or 2000 years back is not applicable today or else there wud not have been progress..

and as for your question on homosexuality..to each his own..how can sumbody else decide wat you hav to follow or not follow especially when it is sumthing so personal as your own sexuality..unless it effects society or a larger issue here i dont see any reason for it bieng immoral or wrong...its a choice one makes..

and i dont even kno if it a choice or it is natural..and if it is natural then i dont think anybody shud say anything against it...how can sumthing natural b immoral???

2007-03-17 17:27:55 · answer #6 · answered by bijal b 1 · 0 0

Firstly, to whom do you refer when you ask.."why do you consider homosexuality to be immoral"?

I'm heterosexual but I do not condemn homosexuality or consider it immoral. Each individual lives their own life, and hopefully is true to themselves, does not willfully hurt others and equally should not be hurt by negative opinions others may have of them

Re The Bible..it was written a long time ago, the world has changed..its open to interpretation.

The golden rule was, and is, Treat Others As You Would Like Them To Treat You..,

If everyone lived by this ideal the world would be a happier place.

Peace , my friend

Paul

2007-03-17 17:21:29 · answer #7 · answered by paulpoulboy. 5 · 0 1

They generally justify that by noting a difference between the old and new testaments. I'd like to know why they even keep the OT in their bible since they no longer believe in it.

At any rate, homosexuality is not immoral.

2007-03-17 17:19:21 · answer #8 · answered by Sun: supporting gay rights 7 · 1 1

Leviticus 18:22

No man is to have sexual relations with another man; God hates that.

1 Corinthians 6:9-10

Surely you know that the wicked will not posses God's Kingdom. Do not fool yourselves; people who are immoral or who worship idols or are adulterers or homosexual perverts,or ........... - none of these will possess God's Kingdom.

I consider it immoral and perverted cause god considers it immoral and perverted. Homosexuals will not enter heaven.

2007-03-17 17:51:32 · answer #9 · answered by Kenny 3 · 0 1

the bible is a religious buffet to them. they pick the things that they have fears of phobia's about and use the bible to make it wrong.

and everything else they discount as a parable, or say that it is no longer required.


i do not think that homosexuality is immoral. it happens in nature and several species of animals are known to mate for life with a same sex partner.

2007-03-17 17:19:42 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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