I am the "spittin image of my mother." But I am not her. My husband and I have become "one flesh". But we are not the same person. At Acts 2:32-36 we are told that God resurrected Jesus. Clearly God did not die. It goes on to say that Jesus is now at God's right hand and that God made him Lord and Christ. Clearly God is greater than Christ.as he himself acknowledged at John 14:28
The doctrine of a trinitarian God can actually be traced to ancient Babylon. A Dictionary of Religious Knowledge notes that many say that the Trinity “is a corruption borrowed from the heathen religions, and ingrafted on the Christian faith.” And The Paganism in Our Christianity declares: “The origin of the [Trinity] is entirely pagan.” Constantine, hiself a pagan, presided at the council of Nicea and promote the idea of a trinitarian God for political reasons.
The Council of Nicaea, held in Nicea in Bithynia (in present-day Turkey), convoked by the Roman Emperor Constantine I in 325, was the first ecumenical conference of bishops of the Catholic Church, and most significantly resulted in the first uniform Christian doctrine, called the Nicene Creed. With the creation of the creed, a precedent was established for subsequent 'general (ecumenical) councils of Bishops' (Synods) to create statements of belief and canons of doctrinal orthodoxy— the intent being to define unity of beliefs for the whole of Christendom.
2007-03-17 13:34:13
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answer #1
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answered by babydoll 7
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If you ask this question, it is correct to assume that you have done an in depth study of the four gospels correct? or is it?
Therefore how can you make this claim, throughout the John Christ identifies himself with Yahweh of the Old Testament. Who did the God of Moses tell him to tell the Egyptians had sent him? I am who I am. This means i exist and have always existed.
Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.” John 8: 58. THis was a direct claim to the divinity of Jesus.
other places such i am the bread of life etc... I am the light of the world... in John 8: 9 Did he phrase things this way accidentally? in the words of Paul absurd.
And the other person was correct when she quoted Jesus as saying "i and the Father are one" John 10:30.
In all, the people in his context would have been shocked at him making these claims, claims that they would understand better than anyone in North America 2000 years later.
Lastly it wasn't something that Jesus said directly but at the beginning of the book of John,
In the Beginning there was the Word, the Word was with God and the Word was God. The Word became flesh and dwelt among us. hmmm thats interesting
2007-03-17 09:17:36
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answer #2
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answered by Me_know_Stuff 1
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Philippians 2:5-8 says Jesus is God who took on human variety. a million Timothy 3:sixteen says God replace into show up in the flesh Colossians 2:9 says the fullness of deity dwells actual in Jesus. Isaiah 40 3:10-11, Acts 4:11-12, Luke 2:11, Titus 2:13 says there is one God and Savior and that Jesus is God and Savior. Mark 2:7 says God on my own can forgive sins & Mark 2:10 says Jesus forgives sins. John 10:30 - Jesus suggested he and the father are one. John 14:9 - Jesus says whoever has considered him has considered the father. Isaiah 9:6 says the Messiah would be amazing God.
2016-10-18 22:41:23
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Well, I don't know whee you got that from, but there is a suboordination to the Father that is notable. So I would say that you are partially right. Yet the truth is in there if you want it. The jews thought that He was making Himself equal to God:
John 10:33 "We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."
and here:
John 5:18
For this reason the Jews tried all the harder to kill him; not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.
Is it possible that in the Jewish culture, that there is an equality by relation?
And Paul also, referred to Jesus by quoting the Old Testament. We are familliar that the Ten Commandments says that we must only worship God?
Hebrews 1:6 And again, when God brings his firstborn into the world, he says,
"Let all God's angels worship him." 7 In speaking of the angels he says,
"He makes his angels winds,
his servants flames of fire." 8 But about the Son he says,
"Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever,
and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom.
So could you see why Christians would claim Jesus is equal with God now?
2007-03-17 09:09:34
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answer #4
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answered by Christian Sinner 7
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It's good that you came to Yahoo Answers with this question, because this is the only place you're likely to get the real scoop.
Jesus was a Jew who never heard of Christianity. He was a great public speaker who could draw a crowd. He had a lot more than twelve followers. The Romans were the bosses and they didn't want any Jewish leaders, so they decided to bump him off. I think it was a pretty ordinary murder. A few soldiers killed some guy, but the story that has come down to us is like an opera or something, with a crowd of Jews yelling "Crucify him!" and the Romans reluctantly complying. Jesus died of asphyxiation, and could not have possibly uttered any of the four different sets of "famous last words" attributed to him by different gospel writers. The Romans would never have permitted anyone to remove the body from the cross. Their practice was to leave crucified bodies up for the birds to eat. The purpose was to terrorize the populace.
Saint Paul never met Jesus. He was too late. There were a lot of pagans who had taken on a lot of Jewish ways. They even went to the synagogue, but they could not convert to Judaism because they refused to get circumcised. Paul started preaching to them. He told them they could keep their customs. They became the first Christians. In those days people used to worship people, living or dead. Augustus Caesar was the first emperor of Rome. He started calling himself the Son of God, to which the early Christians replied "Jesus is the Son of God!" Now they had two Gods and they were only supposed to have one. They solved that problem by developing the doctorine of the Trinity, one God who could manifest himself as three persons, like having three avatars.
In 70 AD, about the time the gospels were written, the Roman army destroyed the temple in Jerusalem and dispersed the Jewish population. In the hardship that ensued, their numbers were greatly reduced.
2007-03-17 09:14:39
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answer #5
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answered by The Bird 3
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JTJ, I am so glad you asked. I don't have an answer to your question, but I am curious to know as to when Jesus never claimed to be equal with God. Also, why do Christians claim him to be so (the blessed trinity?). I do love and believe Jesus Christ to be my savior. I find I am very angry with God for many reasons.
2007-03-17 08:56:48
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answer #6
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answered by kisstheboys 2
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Jehovah's Witnesses do not claim that Jesus is equal to God.
We recognize Jesus as God's only Begotten Son.
2007-03-17 09:03:20
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answer #7
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answered by Here I Am 7
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I agree with you Jesus always talked about his Father the one greater than i that sent me. So many ppl being misguided today. In the bible When Jesus said that God was his Father how do you get he was saying he was equal to God because that is not what that means. So if you say talking about your dad) That, that is my Father you are saing you are equal? Not ppl are putting something there that is not there!!!
2007-03-17 09:10:37
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answer #8
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answered by CHAEI 6
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Again, another Athiest gone array. Jesus Christ Said if you have seen me , you have seen the Father. Father, Son, Holy Ghost is a three in ONE! Trinity. God the father, Jesus , the word of God made flesh, Holy Ghost, the Spirit of God wich
you recieve when you believe.
Since you self proclaimed Athiests do not believe one way or another, why dont you go away and critisize the Sadists; Religion and Spirituality- So if you do not believe, why do you come Here? THERE IS NO SUCH THING AS AN ATHIEST,
FOR ALL KNOW HIM FROM THE GREATEST OF THEM TO THE LEAST OF THEM.
2007-03-17 09:00:25
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answer #9
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answered by Justme 3
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I have never understood that about christians either. When louis XIV said "l'etat? c'est moi" do they believe he was actully claiming to be a landmass streaching from the meditarianian to the english channel? He meant that speaking to him was the same as speaking to the state.
Using a legal example ( my field) No one comes to the US but through the Attorney General. That doesn't mean he rules on every person, he delegates authority to many people, judges, application adjudicators, etc. When you are speaking to them, they answer for the attorney general. Thus they could say, in a particular case, " I and the attorney general are one."
They wouldn't be claiming to be Gonzalez, but to speak with his authority.
2007-03-17 09:01:03
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answer #10
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answered by Zarathustra 5
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