2007-03-17 06:33:35 · 20 answers · asked by Tommy D 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Not according to Romans 10: 9&10
2007-03-17 06:36:17 · answer #1 · answered by cbmultiplechoice 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No of course not. Some people believe that it shows you have truly been inhabited by the Holy Spirit, but in reality that is a lot of hog wash. Nor should you have to prove to anyone that you have been saved.
Next time someone talks about speaking in tongues, challenge them. The understanding of tongues is much different then when it first happened. It was being able to speak to someone about Jesus in their own language. Not about babble. Examples of this can be found with the apostles at the begining of their ministry.
Paul even goes so far to say that those who speak in tongues should not do so unless there is someone around who can translate what is being said! Something not seen a lot in modren Pentacostal churches.
So no, one is not deemed saved only when they speak in tongues. And, it is no one's business anyway except your's and God's.
2007-03-17 06:41:06 · answer #2 · answered by noncrazed 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No. God's grace is all that is required. In the scriptural account of the crucifixion, for example, Christ says to the thief crucified beside him, "This day you will be with Me in paradise." There was no baptism, no communion, none of what is referred to as the "means of grace", nothing more or less than Christ's forgiveness. Speaking in tongues is assumed by some to be a sign that one has been saved, but I feel that scriptural support for that doctrine is very weak.
2007-03-17 06:40:43 · answer #3 · answered by mjb63114 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. Speaking in tongues is just one of the many potential gifts of the Holy Spirit. Not everyone receives all gifts, some receive some and others receive others. It depends upon God.
2007-03-17 08:21:16 · answer #4 · answered by neofreshmao 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Un-tied Pentecostals think so according to Acts 2. (Yes, I spelled Un tied and not United as the UPC are a very, very 'untied" bunch of people!!! They think that if you don't speak in unknown languages when you pray that you aren't filled with the holy spirit and will go to hell if you aren't filled with the holy spirit and fire.
They make you prove that you can speak in tongues (pray in unknown languages) by making their "converts" come to the front and demonstrate when they first "receive" the holy spirit.
The majority of Christian sects don't believe this.
2007-03-17 06:41:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, the Bible clearly says that salvation is by God's grace though faith in Christ. "For God loved the world so much that he gave his one and only Son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life" (John 3:16). We believe that it is possible for Christians today, as well as in New Testament times, to receive special gifts of the Spirit. In regard to the spiritual gifts as they are listed in 1 Corinthians 12:4-11, it is important to note especially verse 11 where we find that the Holy Spirit gives the gifts according to His own will. "He (the Holy Spirit) chooses who gets which gifts, and He dispenses them at His good pleasure. While we are held accountable for the use of any gifts He gives us, we have no responsibility for gifts we have not been given. Every one of the fruits of the Spirit [Galatians 5:22-23] should be characteristic of every single Christian. But the gifts of the Spirit are different. Every believer should have the same fruit as every other believer, but not every believer will have the same gifts as every other believer. No, the Holy Spirit distributes the gifts in such a way that every believer has at least one gift which is uniquely his. You may have been given a certain gift by God, but it would be a mistake for you to say everyone else should have that same gift.
We must keep in mind that the spiritual gifts are given by the Holy Spirit and must not be considered unimportant. The use of them is to exalt the Lord and build up the body of believers. The possession of a spiritual gift is not to be thought of as making one believer more holy or more spiritually advanced than another. It is important to note that Paul admonishes that these gifts must be governed by love and that all things should "be done decently and in order" (1 Corinthians 14:40). A good test of any spiritual ministry or experience is whether or not it honors God and exalts the Lord Jesus Christ.
2007-03-17 07:01:41 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. As a matter of fact, the gift of tongues is no longer existent like it was in the Bible.
So, if you speak in that gibberish, you might NOT be saved at all.
2007-03-17 06:36:26 · answer #7 · answered by ? 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Speaking in tongues is a gift from the Lord. You ask Him for that gift if you want it. It does not determine your salvation.The bible tells of the gifts of the spirit and this is one of them.
2007-03-17 07:27:47 · answer #8 · answered by princess 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. You get different gifts from the holy spirit and tongues is just one of them.
2007-03-17 06:44:41 · answer #9 · answered by Kenny 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, all that is required to have salvation; is by Water Baptism as taught by Christ Jesus. To believe in your heart and mind, that He is what the Bible says, He did accomplish all that is written of Him, and He will one day return; just as the Bible says He will.
As for, speaking in Tongues, it is just another way of saying 'languages'. Like "English, German, Japanese, or Italian".
-- I must share with you and all who are reading this; the truth.
A while back I was given a book titled "Why Tongues by Kenneth E. Hagin". This man does a very good job of MISQUOTING and MISUSING scripture to make his point.
Here are some examples:::
On page 2 ------
He has listed Acts 1.4-5 and 2.1-4; Mr. Hagin forgot to mention that in verse 6 of Acts 2 it says "When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one HEARD THEM SPEAK in HIS OWN LANGUAGE." (in other words - if I were to suddenly be able to speak to someone in Russian and have never studied the language)
Page 5 --- Here Mr. Hagin is trying to say that Water Baptism is not necessary by quoting Acts 8.18; however ----
If we read further into the chapter, verses 36-38 says "As they were going along the road. they came to some water; and the eunuch said, 'Look, here is water! What is to prevent me from being baptized?' He commanded the chariot to stop, and both of them, Philip and the eunuch, went into the water, and Philip baptized him."
Page 6 -- Mr. Hagin has quoted Acts 10.44-46, but again if we read into verse 47; it says ----
"Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water? They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have, so he ordered they be baptized, in the name of Jesus Christ."
Page 12 -- Acts 2.4 is cited -- but again we MUST continue reading, in verses 5-8 is the following :::
"Now there were devout Jews from every nation under heaven living in Jerusalem. And at this sound the crowd gathered and was bewildered, because each one heard them speaking in the native language of each. Amazed and astonished, they asked, "Are not all these who are speaking Galileans? And how is it that we hear, each of us, in our own native language?"
Verse 9-11 "Parthians, Medes, Elamites, and residents of Mesopotamia, Judea, and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya belonging to Cyrene, and visitors from Rome, both Jews and proselytes, Cretans and Arabs -- in our own languages we hear them speaking about God's deeds of power."
The whole book is like those examples, I looked up each and every chapter and verse; and came to one conclusion. In other words, a person is "born-again", according to the Bible; through the words of disciples and Christ Jesus by Water Baptism. Also, there is no such thing as 'speaking in tongues'; as taught by certain churches / leaders.
2007-03-17 07:19:07 · answer #10 · answered by whathappentothisnation 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋