Paul and Peter fought about this in Galatians. We only have Paul's side of the argument in print.
Christians will always debate about stuff like this, with both sides claiming authority. That's the way it goes...
2007-03-17 06:04:04
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answer #1
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answered by carwheelsongravel1975 3
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The laws of Moses are divided into two: the moral laws and the ceremonial laws. The ceremonial laws were to establish Israel as a separate nation from all the other pagan nations and religions around them. The moral laws, however, are relevant to this day. Jesus' two greatest commandments in the book of Matthew some up the Ten Commandments. He also taught many things that upheld the moral aspect of the Old Testament law, yet he did things like forgiving instead of stoning to death (according to the law) the adulteress. Jesus did not tell us to keep offering animal sacrifices on the altar like what the Israelites did. The animal sacrifice has been replaced by Jesus' own sacrifice. This division of laws is inevitable.
Thus, the moral laws of Moses do matter, and they are definitely a part of New Testament law, if there is such a term. But the ceremonial laws, such as the celebration of certain festivals and offering of animal sacrifices, are simply irrelevant because of what Jesus has done to replace them.
2007-03-17 13:12:18
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answer #2
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answered by Daniel 2
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Jesus said he came to fulfill the law. That is precisely what he did. If a promise is fulfilled, do we keep looking for the fulfillment? If a contract to buy a car is fulfilled, do we keep paying a car note? Christ fulfilled the law and Paul makes it plain at Ephesians 2:15 that the law was abolished. At Colossians 2:14 he plainly states that it was blotted out - nailed to the torture stake. Of course, we should feel happy about this. For the punishment for violating the sabbath was death.
It is true that some feel the Mosaic law was divided into parts: the moral part (the Ten Commandments) and the ceremonial part. They also feel that the moral part – the Ten Commandments – is still in force. Well, when Christ referred to the law, did he do so in a manner that indicated a division into two parts? At Matthew 5:17, 21, 23, 27, 31 and 38, he said, as you quoted: "Do not think I came to destroy the law . . . but to fulfill." Notice, however, what else he said further on: "You heard that it was said you must not murder." This is a reference to the sixth commandment found at Exodus 20:13. But then he says: "If now you are bringing your gift to the alter . . . " this is a reference to Deuteronomy 16:16, 17 which is part of the law but no part of the Ten Commandments.
Continuing on: "You heard that it was said you must not commit adultery." This is a reference to the seventh commandment found at Exodus 20:14. Then he says "It was said whoever divorces his wife let him give her a certificate of divorce." This is Deuteronomy 24:1 which is no part of the Ten Commandments. He does this often, mixing references to the Ten Commandments with other parts of the Mosaic law. He draws no line of demarcation. Should we?
Moreover, the apostle Paul says under inspiration at Romans 7:6 and 7 that "We [the Jews] have been discharged from the law." He goes on: I would not have known covetousness if the Law had not said you must not covet." Notice, immediately after writing that Jews had been discharged from the law, what example does he use to illustrate his teaching? The Tenth Commandment! Thus he shows that the ten commandments were included in the Law from which they had been discharged. He draws no line of demarcation between the Ten Commandments and the law. Should we?
Finally, when Jesus was asked what was the greatest commandment, what was his reply? Did he isolate the Ten Commandments? No. He said you must love God with your whole heart, soul, mind body and strength. And the second is this: love your neighbor as yourself. Jesus here quotes Deuteronomy 6:5 and Leviticus 19:18. Then he says on these two commandments the whole law hangs and the prophets. If some cling to the Ten Commandments and teach that they are binding but that the rest are not, are they not in fact rejecting what Jesus here says as to which is the greatest?
A careful consideration goes to show that Jewish Christians were discharged from the law and all other Christians [Gentile Christians] have NEVER been under the law. The Mosaic law covenant was between God and the nation of Israel.
Does this mean that Christians are under no type of restraint? No. Many of the moral standards found in the Mosaic law are restated in the Christian Greek Scriptures (New Testament).
Hannah J Paul
2007-03-17 12:59:45
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answer #3
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answered by Hannah J Paul 7
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There are several reasons. Foremost is they lack the cultural context which gave them their immediacy in that ancient Israelite culture. Most Americans do not know what seething is, to say noting of a prohibition against seething kids. Second, with both Peter and Paul, the Christian community begins a long slow walk away from a non-contextual view of the Law. So, the changes in dietary restrictions and the like. Some Christians try to re-inject the Law through the device of "Ceremonial" vs "Moral", or some other distinction. IMHO, those fail, too. If one is going to assert that the OT law does have a place, then they are going to have to be interpreted in ways that detatches them from the framework in which they were first formulated and heard. That, too, seems a dubious project as well.
HTH
Charles
2007-03-17 13:03:53
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answer #4
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answered by Charles 6
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Were you circumcised at 8 days old?
Do you make burnt offerings?
Do you eat ham sandwiches?
You are missing out on the specifics of what Jesus taught. He refered to the "weightier matters" of the law that even the most meticulous law abiding Jews had missed: the Law of faith, mercy, and justice. The moral laws of the Old Testament found in the 10 commandments are binding on all Christians, but to claim that we must still follow the hundreds of Mosaic laws is called Judaizing, which St. Paul spoke against very strongly.
You directly contradict Peter's dream where God gave Peter permission to eat unclean foods. We are bound by MORAL laws of the 10 commandments, NOT laws of diet and ritual.
"If, therefore, those who were brought up in the ancient order of things have come to the possession of a new hope, no longer observing the Sabbath, but living in the observance of the Lord's Day, on which also our life has sprung up again by Him and by His death--whom some deny, by which mystery we have obtained faith, and therefore endure, that we may be found the disciples of Jesus Christ, our only Master." Ignatius, To the Magnesians, 9:1 (A.D. 110).
Ignatius was a Jewish Christian trained by John the Apostle, and ordained by Peter.
2007-03-17 13:20:31
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answer #5
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answered by Illuminator 7
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The term fulfill the law is what it all hinges on.. and a lot of christians have never studied judaism to understand what that means.. when a rabbi would say "I am fulfilling the law, he was simply saying that he was giving further explanation of it."
It was a common term in those days. Unfortunately, they'll drag out their concordances (roflmao yeah that's such a great resource there!) and tell you that I'm wrong.. but, if you go ask a rabbi or study judaism, you'll find it to be true.
I agree.. if you're going to follow the god of the bible, he's the jewish god. He does not change, and his covenant with Israel is to last forever.
2007-03-17 13:07:29
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answer #6
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answered by Kallan 7
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Yes Jesus did fulfill the law, in otherwords he was the only person in history who was able to obey the complete letter of the Mosiac Law Code. This does not mean we disregard them, they are a guide, for us to learn the meaning of the new laws that Christ instituted. At Matthew 22: 37 he says: " You must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind." 38 "This is the greatest and first commandment" 39 The second like it is this, 'You must love your neighbor as yourself.' 40 On These Two Commandments the Whole Law hangs, and the Prophets."
2007-03-17 13:06:01
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answer #7
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answered by Nancy 6
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I am not through reading the new testament yet, but I have read through Romans, and I have not yet seen anything that would make me think your view is correct. Jesus said not by works but by faith you shall be saved. That is not the old testament law. It is by the grace of God you are saved, not by the law. You are ignoring large parts of the new testament to say what you are saying.
2007-03-17 16:18:27
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answer #8
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answered by GoodGuy53 5
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Of course the law matters. It is from the Old Testament law that we learn what is sin and what is not. That does not change because God does not change. The gospel has changed since I was a young man. When I was young Jesus came to save us from our sins, to day they teach that Jesus came to forgive us for our sins, not save us from them. So to many contemporary Christians the law does not matter because they figure that Jesus will just forgive them anyway. But for those who want to be saved from their sins the law is a very integral part because as Paul says, " for apart from the law I would not know sin."
2007-03-17 13:06:24
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answer #9
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answered by oldguy63 7
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Mat 5:17 -
Think not that I am come ... - Our Saviour was just entering on his work. It was important for him to state what he came to do. By his setting up to be a teacher in opposition to the scribes and Pharisees, some might charge him with an intention to destroy their law, and to abolish the customs of the nation. He therefore told them that he did not come for that end, but really to fulfill or accomplish what was in the law and the prophets.
To destroy - To abrogate; to deny their divine authority; to set people free from the obligation to obey them. “The law.” The five books of Moses called the law.
The Prophets - The books which the prophets wrote. These two divisions here seem to comprehend the Old Testament, and Jesus says that he came not to do away or destroy the authority of the Old Testament.
But to fulfil - To complete the design; to fill up what was predicted; to accomplish what was intended in them. The word “fulfill” also means sometimes “to teach” or “to inculcate,” Col_1:25. The law of Moses contained many sacrifices and rites which were designed to shadow forth the Messiah. These were fulfilled when he came and offered himself a sacrifice to God,
“A sacrifice of nobler name.
And richer blood than they.”
The prophets contained many predictions respecting his coming and death. These were all to be fulfilled and fully accomplished by his life and his sufferings.
Christians live under grace, we are saved by grace and live by grace. The law cannot save anyone, it only says, "guilty".
Rom 3:19 But we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those within the Law, so that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world be under judgment to God.
Rom 3:20 Because by works of Law not one of all flesh will be justified before Him, for through Law is full knowledge of sin.
Rom 7:5 For when we were in the flesh, the passions of sin were working in our members through the Law for the bearing of fruit unto death.
Rom 7:6 But now we have been set free from the Law, having died to that in which we were held, so as for us to serve in newness of spirit, and not in oldness of letter.
Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of Law for righteousness to everyone that believes.
2007-03-17 13:02:53
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answer #10
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answered by BrotherMichael 6
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deegarry,
actually, the logic is very very simple.
Anybody who baptises in christ must have realised his/her own sins. This realisation must have occured because this person reads what God expects of a good and righteous man in the bible. Now, if this person is baptised to christ to wash away these sins why would this person purposefully return to sinning??? Unless he/she was never truly repentant? In which case, he/she voids the baptism which was not conducted in repentance.
Remember 'repent!....and be baptised, in the name of Jesus"
The law is indeed ended. BUT that is only because Jesus saves those who believes in Him and wants to be free from sin. Now, those who believes in Him are justified through Him. If these people are asking God to save them from sin by asking to be justified through Christ, yet are wilfully wallowing in sin by purposefully and intentionaly violating the law, then they are better off condemned.
Look up the word 'wilfully sin" at biblegateway.com and you will find the verse that condemns these 'believers'.
It was FOR the fulfilment of the law that Christ came.
Its like, you can't afford to take the poison, so someone was sent to take the poison for you. After he takes it, you're okay, but you return to take the poison yourself. Where's the logic?
2007-03-17 14:13:46
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answer #11
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answered by Deep Sky 1
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