to whom it was addressed to?
2007-03-17 01:40:25 · 8 answers · asked by Lexter M 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I'll assume you mean the NEW testament, since there is no book of John in the old.
The book of 1st John was completed in 98 CE (AD) It was written in or near Ephesus.
John writes to protect his “beloved ones,” his “young children,” against the wrong teachings of the “many antichrists” that have gone out from among them and that are trying to seduce them away from the truth. (2:7, 18) Since no particular congregation is addressed, the letter was evidently intended for the entire Christian association. The lack of a greeting at the beginning and a salutation at the end would also indicate this. Some have even described this writing as a treatise rather than a letter. The use of the plural “you” throughout shows that the writer directed his words to a group rather than to an individual.
2007-03-17 01:45:51 · answer #1 · answered by Badriya 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Some where near Ephesus By John the Apostle in 98 CE
This letter is written more in the style of a treatise, since it has neither a greeting nor a conclusion. In the second chapter John addresses fathers, young children, and young men, denoting that it was not a personal letter to an individual. It was very likely intended for a congregation or congregations and, in fact, applies to the entire association of those in union with Christ.—1Jo 2:13, 14.
gemhandy@hotmail.com
2007-03-17 01:54:51 · answer #2 · answered by gem 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
John is in the New Testament. The Gospel of John was written around year 90 of the the first century. 1 John, the Epistle was written after the Gospel of John. It, like the other Gospels, was written by more than one person, who wrote in the name of John. It may have been composed in Ephesus or Syria, or Antioch or even Alexandria, or a combination of all places.
2007-03-17 01:57:24 · answer #3 · answered by Mary W 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
There is no 1st John in the Old Testament or the New for that matter.
2007-03-17 01:45:08 · answer #4 · answered by Misty 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Dear Friend,
1st John is part of the Greek Scriptures (New Testament)
God Bless
2007-03-17 01:45:28 · answer #5 · answered by ianptitchener 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
There is no 1st John of the OT.
2007-03-17 01:44:22 · answer #6 · answered by birdsflies 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
oh... there was no John in the old testament
2007-03-17 01:43:57 · answer #7 · answered by Zsazsa A 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
There is no sense me repeating what the others have already said.
2007-03-17 01:46:13 · answer #8 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋