If two Jewish men are speaking. And one of the Jewish men realizes that he had made a mistake and not given as many discounts as he should of, and refers to himself as having accidentally "jewed" someone, is that offensive. If so, to what extent?
2007-03-09 13:28:45 · 5 answers · asked by cant7414 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The term is extremely offensive and is never used by Jews.
2007-03-10 05:30:22 · answer #1 · answered by Ivri_Anokhi 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends. Yes, it usually is, and unless the two men were very close friends and having an inside joke from before, it would be very offensive. I know I would be offended even if my closest friend in the world, my boyfriend, said that. It's just prolonging the stereotypes. However, some people may not be offended, though I know many that would be. It depends on the person and the context.
2007-03-09 21:35:36 · answer #2 · answered by LadySuri 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No offense to the guy who said it, but he would be far better saying he accidentally ripped someone off. It is an offensive use of the word, like turning any ethnicity into a stereotypical insult. If the other guy wasn't offended, it wasn't offensive at that time, but it is idiocy for anyone to use their ethnicity or anyone else's as an insult like that. btw I can't think of a similarly vile rendering of an ethnicity into a verb. It is particularly horrible.
2007-03-09 21:38:38 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Extremely offensive.
2007-03-11 09:34:50 · answer #4 · answered by Paperback Writer (real JPAA) 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Disgraceful slurs; not acceptable.
2007-03-11 01:06:47 · answer #5 · answered by T J 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋