2007-03-09 02:36:11 · 21 answers · asked by Kate 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I think most Muslims would say that the message of the prophet Adam was the same as that of the Quran, but was eventually corrupted by people and needed to be sent again.
2007-03-09 02:43:52 · answer #1 · answered by Love Shepherd 6 · 4⤊ 1⤋
One could easily counter this argument by asking "Why didn't God send the Bible during the time of Adam and Eve?"
A theologan's stance would likely be that during the time of Adam and Eve, no holy text was necessary. Mankind was still extremely close to God, literally walking with him at times, so there was no need for texts.
My stance is that I doubt the time of Adam and Eve ever happened. After all, it mentions that Cain had children, right? Who was his wife? If Adam and Eve were the first humans, Cain couldn't have had children unless he either A: Slept with his own mother, or B: there were already other humans on Earth elsewhere.
2007-03-09 02:41:04 · answer #2 · answered by P.I. Joe 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Those books were sent only for the people of those times for example lets take a look at the Bible:
These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. (Matthew 10: 5-6)
"I have much more to say to you, more than you can now bear. But when he, the Spirit of Truth, comes, he will guide you into all truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come. (John 16:12-13)
Mankind was not ready for the Message. Another interesting fact is the title Spirit of Truth, Muhammad (pbuh) was known as Al Amin the truthful/ trustworthy.
2007-03-09 03:00:46 · answer #3 · answered by By Any Means Necessary 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Specious argument as the same could be said of the Torah, 10 Commandments or the NT.
Rather, what is more telling is that Judaism and Christianity do not claim those who came before the founding of the respective religion to be adherents to it. Islam does....much to its discredit.
2007-03-09 02:42:46 · answer #4 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Uh - so when did the bible arrive?
If your logic was to say that Islam must be wrong because the Koran did not come at the start then you just proved that with the absence of the Bible at the same time the same thing applies to Christianity.
Funny how Christians always seem to shoot themselves in the foot with their loaded questions on YA!!!!
2007-03-09 02:47:50 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
because during adam and eve time,people who against religion of allah still few,so allah not send any holy book to adam.main purpose allah send holy book is to tell people who already astray to come back to the right path.
but islam have 4 holy book during time after adam to before muhammad.they are Suhuf-i-Ibrahim (Scrolls of Abraham/Ibrahim),the Tawrat (Torah), the Zabur (Psalms), and the Injil (Gospel).
2007-03-09 02:49:42 · answer #6 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Coz the time of Adam and Eve, there was no religion but Islam as Adam and Even believes in God and teaches his children what God has taught him. lol..
2007-03-10 01:50:06 · answer #7 · answered by aw_farid 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Allah the lord of the worlds sent down many holy books to his prophets. The were many prophets from Adam to Muhammed, and final holy book was the the Quran.
2007-03-09 02:47:18 · answer #8 · answered by tah_london 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
If Christianity is the true religion, then why did God start with the Jews and old testament? Why didn't he just start with the new testament in the first place?
The world has many many different religions. They can't all be right. But can they all be wrong?
2007-03-09 02:48:32 · answer #9 · answered by TechnoRat60 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why didnt Jesus make an appearance to Adam and eve. the point is that NO RELIGION is the truth.
2007-03-09 02:44:28 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋