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Mexico belongs to the Indians who were there first doesn't it? As I understand it, the indians who were there first are the most oppressed people in Mexico. Besides that, Mexico would make raids into North America and kill indians there too. But the indians in North America where to tough for them to conquer. What are your thoughts on this?

2007-03-09 02:34:15 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Immigration

I know most of Mexico consists of what are called mestizos which are a mixture of Indian and Spaniard blood. However, you still have full-blooded indians who are the most oppressed people in Mexico. Shouldn't those Indians be paid reparations? Shouldn't those Indians be given land more land rights? Shouldn't those Indians represent Mexico? Also, shouldn't the North American Indian tribes that were attacked by Mexican raids be paid reparations? Even if the Indians won most of the conflicts?

2007-03-09 03:08:14 · update #1

I KNOW the history of Mexico.

However, 30% of Mexico's population consists of the indigenous Indians who were there first. The mestizos make up 60% and whites make up about 9% with others at 1%. The land originally belonged to the indigenous indians there -- the 30% of the population. The remaining 70% of the population owes these indians back payments don't you think? The famous American Indian Geronimo had to fight to protect his people from the Mexicans. Shouldn't his tribe and others like his who were attacked be paid reparations by Mexico (minus the 30% ethnic indians)?

2007-03-09 03:19:35 · update #2

The US and European countries already pay reparations in the form of FOREIGN AID, special trade preferences, immigration preferences and various other government subsidies. But why hasn't Mexico cut a check for these Indian tribes?

And why hasn't Mexico given a public apology to their full-blooded Indians and a public apology to American Indian tribes such as the one led by Geronimo?

And why does 70% of the population act like they own Mexico, like they're the true Mexicans, when they're not full-blooded indian?

2007-03-09 03:44:00 · update #3

17 answers

Excellent Question.

The Mexican mestizos can keep their worthless pesos, and they can repay American Indians by having a nice cup of shut up about land claims, since they know very little about their own history, and it shows.

2007-03-09 16:54:52 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

When the Spaniards arrived on Hispaniola in 1492, there were about 100 million inhabitants of the Americas. Fast forward 100 years and that number was down to about 10 million. The Spaniards and the Portuguese colonized most of South and Central America long berfore the state of Mexico came into existence in the 19th century. In fact, the "Mexicans", as you call them, are a mix of indigenous peoples and white people from the Iberian peninsula. So if anyone should be apologizing to the Aztecs and the Incas, it should be the Spaniards. Modern Mexicans basically ARE the descendants of the original natives.

2007-03-09 02:50:07 · answer #2 · answered by vt500ascott 3 · 2 1

i see ur point;
(but beware some answers-Keith,for instance,is mistaken
in thinking that"it couldnt EXIST without its bloody past"-and
bloody past should also be capitalised- for this mistake seems to be widespread; clearly,all countries could exist
without a violent and closed past- what he was trying to say was that this is its history;And,of course-this is where the mistake can/is made-its a History Written And Recorded By
Certain Men.
Now we all know this is true of all histories;but
we should be sure that we choose the one that is,or is
virtually the truth.(and this IS important,witness that some
actually believe the history that the nazis didnt murder 6
million jews,or that No one landed on the moon in the last
century!).
So K was probably highlighting the fact that some
terrible acts and genocide,was carried out by a group of
so-called government Criminals,and there is factual evidence
for this(and all this obviously exists).
i think you are touching-
on questions about law and order,especially when a more
Industrialised people meet or invade some territory where
the people(s) are non industrial peasants(or "savages").
The U.S is known as a young country so this and similar type
historical happenings,of natives meeting a more advanced
and so-called civilised people,is still being discussed and
"old" laws still being integrated(as currently land Should but
is not,being given back to the rightful north american indians,
as per the real and existing Treaties signed by their chiefs
and ours!).

2007-03-09 03:14:17 · answer #3 · answered by peter m 6 · 1 1

Why Mexico alone? You forgot the U.S.A, England and Spain, they all killed Natives and stole their lands and gold. Besides at what we call now Mexico it was Spain the ruling empire that did most of the killing and stealing (of course the Mexican government did it too later). But if Mexico have to pay then USA, England, Spain, France, Portugal, and many other countries should do it too for their old colonial, natives killings, gold seeking, land stealing and slavery times in America, Africa, Asia and the Pacific. And besides if Mexico is were going to return anything then they would ask to have Texas an California back. I agree that it was unfair to take the land from the natives and kill them but is also unfair that only Mexico have to pay for their old crimes while everyone forget the other countries that did the same.

2007-03-09 03:36:58 · answer #4 · answered by ? 7 · 2 2

Excuse me!! Mexicans are mixed of Indians ( Aztecs. Incas, Mayan..etc, etc and Spanish blood. No it should be Spain and the Catholic Church that need to pay the Indians and ask for giveness. And the European countries ( British, France etc ,etc ) that need to pay and ask North American Indians for forgiveness. Where do you get your info?? I am a Mexican American who has Mayan, Apache, Spanish and last but least Scottish blood running in me.
Really we need to go forward and treat everyone with respect and get over who screwed who.
I will honesty say it bothers me when Americans talk about how South Americans are using America. They need to study history and think. Our European ancestors did exactly what these people are doing today. I am not saying what is happening today is right but we can make it right, but if there is a will there will be a way to to do right for all.
Adios amigo..PEACE \ /

2007-03-09 03:02:16 · answer #5 · answered by RORO 2 · 0 1

What are you talking about? Do you know anything about history or you just guessing. Mexicans are from Indian descents our ancestors are Aztecs Indians. Another Idiot that know more about me than me.
In wars whatever happens, happens. There was never no treaty with Mexico and Amercian-Indians. There were Treaty between US and Mexico, US and Amercian Indians,that where Reparations are set in place, if the Treaty are not honor. There was plenty of land stolen, but if not in writing it is a moot point.

2007-03-11 01:35:19 · answer #6 · answered by art_raiders 2 · 0 2

The whole idea of reparations is ludicrous at any level. How far back do we go? How do we make reparations for those who were wiped out? If Mexico makes reparations can they sue Spain since that was their "mother" country? Spain itself would have to pay the Muslims for the Reconquista but wait, the Muslims in Spain came from Arabia and would owe reparations to the entire Middle East, Egypt, North Africa (which was a Romano-Greek population at the time of their invasion) and the now non-existant Visigoths who were in Spain when the Muslims invaded in the 700s AD. Of course then the dead Visigoths owe reparations to the Roman population they replaced as the Empire was collapsing in the West. But the Romans owe something to the Celts who were there before them, who owe the indigenous peoples there before them. Confused yet?
Since I'm English/Scottish/Scandinavian, do I have to pay my Scottish self for English domination? Can I make my Scandinavian self pay for the Viking raids on England? Should I get money from the Huns who displaced my people (Angles/Saxons) to England? I'd have to then turn that over the Celts whom my ancestors displaced though.

I think we could all go on ad infinitum this way. Isn't it more sensible to say that everyone has made mistakes in the past but we are only responsible for us not the decisions made by our ancestors?

2007-03-09 02:47:29 · answer #7 · answered by Crusader1189 5 · 4 2

You are out of historical facts! The ones who slaughtered the Natives in Mexico and the rest of what we now call the United States were the English!!! Yes ,they and they killed more by giving them blankets contaminated with chicn pocks! Ever see the movie ,;soldier blue? No,? what a pity! Go look for it and watch it ,I take ur not a good reader, the movie will do! Mexico IS Aztec , Indian and Spaniard! All Hispanic America is laden with Indian , black and European stock, mostly from Spain ,but other nations of Europe too! If anyone need to make compensation is England and her majesty who knighted pirates who stole the gold from Spanish ships! Ahoy mi amigo!

2007-03-09 02:43:44 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

mexicans did not conquer the indians... Spaniards did. Mexican people are a mix of indian and Spaniard. anyways , the US did the same thing to the Indians here and did treat them horribly as well. This type of thing happened all over the world throughout history, and might still be going on.

2007-03-09 02:46:30 · answer #9 · answered by b 3 · 3 1

Well at that time, they weren't really Mexicans. They were Spaniards. Most Mexicans today have a Indian blood in them. So i would think seeking reparations from Spain would be your best option. They should try to sue Cortez's descendants. Obviously though, this is a ridiculous question. Pretty much any culture can lay claim to something that was done to them unjustifiably.

2007-03-09 02:39:59 · answer #10 · answered by tobcol 5 · 3 2

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