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2007-03-09 01:15:15 · 1 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Engineering

1 answers

Its more Mat then engineering
j^j= e^jlnj As j=1 so j^j = e^-pi/2

2007-03-09 05:44:10 · answer #1 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 0 0

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