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I'm not talking about his sinless life. I'm talking no original sin. Please no Catholic responses or outright denials, I know your beliefs. I'm looking for a Protestant answer.

2007-03-09 00:38:14 · 15 answers · asked by ccrider 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

He was Adam part 2

2007-03-09 00:41:52 · answer #1 · answered by Samantha 6 · 1 1

Original sin is inherited through the blood, that is the seed of the father. The mother, Mary, is only a vessel. The father of Jesus is God through the Holy Spirit. God is sinless, His seed is sinless. There was no sin for Jesus to inherit. Mary, on the other hand, was a human who was born "WITH" original sin.

Catholics believe that Mary's birth was sinless and that her mother, Ann, conceived her through the Holy Spirit. This is known as the "immaculate conception", and has nothing to do with Jesus. This "belief' is based on the fictitious 'gospel of James'. It is of course nonsense. Even the Catholics believe that this book is a fake. Go figure.

2007-03-09 08:50:50 · answer #2 · answered by John S 3 · 0 0

Jesus was exempt from original sin because He was the true and only Immaculate Conception. He was not conceived as a result of sexual relations between his mother and her husband, but conceived via the Holy Spirit, therefore the stain of original sin never touched Him.

Some people believe that Mary was sinless. There is nothing biblical to support this.

2007-03-09 08:46:42 · answer #3 · answered by Jouvert 5 · 0 0

There is no Protestant vs. Catholic answer (where do you get that?). Anyone who accepts the notion that Jesus was born by the Holy Spirit of a virgin has the same answer that theologians have given since the earliest days of Christology.

Jesus was supposedly generated without male seed, which would keep him free of the curse on Adam's line from the fall, Just as Mary's "Immaculate Conception" supposedly kept her free of the same "stain."

2007-03-09 08:42:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

I'm guessing original sin, giving the value (or lack thereof) of women to folks a few millenia ago.... was patrilinear.

Considering that Jesus, according to christianity, didn't have a father descended from Adam (being instead descended from the big, impossible dude who was always there and made all the other stuff)... he doesn't automatically inherit original sin.


Feel free to whip me gratuitously for using the language of genetics and heredity to explain religious dogma...

2007-03-09 08:44:45 · answer #5 · answered by Nihilist Templar 4 · 0 0

Jesus' mother Mary was conceived, through God's grace, without sin. This is what is referred to as the immaculate conception. Therefore since Jesus had a sinless Mother and God as a father, he was also conceived without original sin.

2007-03-09 08:45:23 · answer #6 · answered by lunatic 7 · 0 1

He was God in the flesh........He was conceived not by traditional means (sex).....He was born of God (The Holy Spirit)

He had to be perfect in order to carry out the sacrifice of taking on the sins of the whole world.....but He also had to be made like His brethren (Read Hebrews)

Thus we have all 3 parts of the trinity present here.

2007-03-09 08:40:58 · answer #7 · answered by primoa1970 7 · 1 0

Because Jesus is the Son of God. He is a mirror of god and even though he was tempted, he was not born of a sinful nature because he is the only begotten son of god.

2007-03-09 08:45:24 · answer #8 · answered by Kenny 3 · 0 0

Original sin is the knowledge of good and bad.
As a half-deity, jesus is not concerned by the search of human to become socially perfect.

2007-03-09 08:50:50 · answer #9 · answered by Damien G 4 · 0 2

Because the seed from which he was created did not come from man, but from the Holy Ghost.

2007-03-09 08:43:32 · answer #10 · answered by jwjkrjstorm 4 · 0 0

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