A 47 year old woman presents with chest pain that worsens with inspiration and improves when she bent forward. Pain is relieved when the patient holds her breath. Blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. Heart examination reveals coarse, scratchy sounds heard throughout the cardiac cycle. Electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals T wave inversions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Intravenous heparin
B. Oral prednisone
C. Fibrinolytics
D. Oral aspirin
E. Primary angioplasty
2007-03-04 20:07:05 · 5 answers · asked by anjusk_18 1 in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ Heart Diseases
A
Intravenous heparin
2007-03-08 06:11:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
(A) Your doctor has ordered heparin, a medication to thin your blood, to help prevent blood clots from forming in your body. Heparin may also be given to prevent blood clots that have already formed from getting any bigger. Heparin will be injected into a vein (intravenously) or under the skin (subcutaneously). Your doctor will decide the best dosing schedule for you.
Please note that I am not a medical professional.
2007-03-04 20:35:16 · answer #2 · answered by gangadharan nair 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think Intravenous heparin
2007-03-04 20:22:44 · answer #3 · answered by someone 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would give her an aspirin. Think MONA (morphine, oxygen, nitrates, aspirin)
2007-03-04 20:14:36 · answer #4 · answered by pussnboots333 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
ugh...C?
2007-03-04 20:16:05 · answer #5 · answered by Mimi 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋