Isaiah 7:14 (King James Version)
14Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
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I'm having a difficult time understanding this. It has always been my understanding that Mary did not "call his name" Immanuel, she "called his name" Jesus. Why does it say he will be named Immanuel if he is not?
2007-02-24
21:06:41
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7 answers
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asked by
Peace
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Steven,
Perhaps it would, if his name were Immanuel. His name is Jesus. Why wouldn't it say Jesus? It goes to all the trouble to say what his name will be, why wouldn't it put what he is actually named?
2007-02-24
21:21:00 ·
update #1
OldGuy,
You are calling it a self fullfilling prophecy.
People call him that because the bible says that people will call him that.
Regardless of language or translation - Jesus was named Jesus, not Immanuel. Look at it this way - If Isaiah was written in Italian, and it said "his name shall be called Giovanni" - and Mary was American and Jesus was actually named John, it would still be incorrect. Yes, John is the american version of Giovanni, but he wasnt' called Giovanni, he was called John. Get it?
2007-02-24
21:33:15 ·
update #2