2007-02-24 05:16:26 · 6 answers · asked by stratmanreturns 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
My point being that it is not necessary to emphasise, as 'I' is obviously 'me' and not 'somebody else'.
It sounds affected and pseudo-intellectual and makes my teeth itch!
2007-02-24 05:42:20 · update #1
Jeannie.
Nota bene!
The rule is not appropriate in English for the simple reason that English is not Latin!
2007-02-24 10:35:48 · update #2
I think this argument falls into the hypercorrection court.
The usage that many informed users of a language consider incorrect, but that the speaker or writer uses through misunderstanding of prescriptive rules, often combined with a desire to seem formal or educated.
2007-02-25 03:18:44 · update #3
Well, you will just have to scratch your itchy teeth. :-) It is a perfectly correct construction! As others have said, it is used for emphasis.
And if you think that's bad, Latin has two words for myself - the emphatic (I, myself), and the reflexive (I bought a necklace for myself).
The rule being "appropriate" in English has nothing to do with Latin, and I never said it did. It was merely an example that it is a common construction to other languages as well. Many of them, in fact. Grammatically speaking, it is correct usage. If you don't believe me, you can look it up *yourself* (this also is emphatic usage). Latin uses them, and its modern day derivatives (the Romance languages) do, too. Classical Greek has the emphatic pronoun, so I would assume modern Greek does, as well. So it is a lot more common than you seem to realize.
Hypercorrection? Sorry, I'm not going to let you off that easy - hypercorrection does not apply here. The many informed users of the English language consider it to be correct, since the concept of the emphatic usage of a reflexive pronoun is explained in grammar books. Nice try, though! I commend your effort. That was pretty creative thinking on your part, I must say. But if you do a search for "english grammar emphatic (or reflexive) pronouns" you will find that it is, indeed, correct. I have seen the proof myself. ;-)
2007-02-24 07:15:39 · answer #1 · answered by Jeannie 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It's used to give emphasis, that's all.
What I want to know is why things are advertised as "free gifts." I've never heard of a gift that you pay for.
2007-02-24 05:38:20 · answer #2 · answered by bedhead 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Just a figure of speech.
2007-02-24 05:20:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Same as one says "you yourself" should know! Emphasis I suppose
2007-02-24 05:20:19 · answer #4 · answered by Kate J 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I myself would never use such language
2007-02-24 05:22:07 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i couldn't understand what you mean.
2007-02-24 05:20:45 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋