in my health class i learned that IgG tests are different from IgM tests (or something like that) in that the IgG tests for past exposure and the other tests for the actual presence of the infection being tested for (chlamydia). if an IgG test comes up positive can someone have had exposure to chlamydia without actually contracting it? i also learned that it is about 60% effective in comparison to a vaginal probe or urine test at 90-98% effective. if anyone has insight let me know with as much detail/information as possible
2007-02-01
06:09:40
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2 answers
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asked by
arrowhead
1
in
Health
➔ Diseases & Conditions
➔ STDs