No, Chlamydia can NOT be trasmitted via a UTI. The only way that you can transmit the disease to another person is by contracting it yourself through sex. Just because you have a urinary infection does not mean that you can give someone else a sexually transmitted disease that you don't even have! Sounds like hubby might have been messing around and trying to cover his tracks. Even if you tested negative, you might want to discuss getting the antibiotic just in case.
2007-01-20 15:07:12
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Um, maybe. Chlamydia is caused by a bacteria. If you took antibiotics for the UTI, it would have cleared it right up. But that leaves the question of where you would have contracted the Chlamydia microbe. I think you need to have a talk with the doctor who did the testing and find out the details.
2007-01-20 15:06:37
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answer #2
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answered by Emmy 6
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Chlamydia does not live in the urinary tract for one. Chlamydia lives usually on the cervix of the uterus. During sexual intercourse the Chlamydia is spread to the man. If you tested negative (without treatment), and he tested positive.....well I'm not sure he got it from you. I don't mean to alarm you, but 1+1 has to equal 2 here. It is a STD...it must be transmitted sexually from someone. Urine does not transmit Chlamydia.
2007-01-20 15:09:09
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answer #3
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answered by bflogal77 4
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Ok...if he tested pos and the two of you had sex before or even during his treatment then most likely you have it too. (NO you can't get it through a UTI..its sexually transmitted only.) Both of you should go in and get checked again, and if either of you are pos no sex until all meds are gone and seconady tests come back neg.
2007-01-20 15:09:39
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answer #4
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answered by ? 1
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No. Your hubby was probably fooling around on you. Having a UTI does NOT have anything to do with chlamydia. Please go talk to doctor.
2007-01-20 15:06:22
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answer #5
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answered by Shawn 4
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Hmmmmmm.....did your hubby tell you that that's what the clinic said? I would say that if you HAD chlamydia, you would have tested positive for it. Someone's lying.
2007-01-20 15:05:45
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answer #6
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answered by bibliophile31 6
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it's possible he got it from you. during that time you had uti, he probably got it, now he's tested positive coz he didn't cure it (he wasn't aware then). you were being treated then for UTI, so its possible you are negative now because you've been treated and your husband isn't. so don't jump to conclusions that he's fooling around.
2007-01-20 16:36:46
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answer #7
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answered by riclavmei 4
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I am not sure if this helps but it sounds like you had a bad experience I would get retested and see what the results are. I believe this is a common std and easily treatable... hope this helps!
2007-01-20 15:31:21
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answer #8
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answered by EXPERTCARADVICE 3
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If you didnt have it then there's no way that you passed it to someone else. Your husband has obviously been sleeping around on ya girl
2007-01-20 17:49:38
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answer #9
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answered by ProudToBeWhite 6
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If you test negative for the disease, there's no way that you passed it on to someone else. How can you give someone something that you don't have?
2007-01-20 15:05:30
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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