Did both originate from a common culinary root or did one copy from the other? Please be unbiased.
2007-01-18 05:40:40 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Food & Drink ➔ Ethnic Cuisine
there was no Israel before 1948.
Jews came from all over the world to colonize Palestine.
you do the math.
2007-01-19 03:42:39 · answer #1 · answered by Kalooka 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Like all foods they have something in common. THey both are mediteranean/middle eastern food. Because both relied heavily on trade and both was countrolled by the same countries in various part of their history, they would have a lot in common. One cuisine did not originate from the other though. They also split apart because of religious reason. SInce Jewish culture, Halaal did borrow from Kosher. There cuisine is probably a composite of Mesopotamian and eqyptian with Persian and CHinese added to the mix. This is basically what Mediteranean/ middle eastern is any ways.
2007-01-18 05:56:08 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Curry.
2007-01-18 06:02:11 · answer #3 · answered by Gasman 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
huh
2007-01-18 05:56:16 · answer #4 · answered by CelticMoonGoddess 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋