How can one be blamed for "misinterpreting" a text that is too diversely re-interpretable for humanity to reach a consensus on its "correct" interpretation even after 2000 years????
2007-01-15 23:07:59
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answer #1
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answered by neuroaster 3
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Please read Romans 1:22-32 These verse make it very clear and plain that Homosexuality is a SIN and not only those that do these things but it is a SIN to all who derive pleasure from them that do .
Read also Galatians 5:19-23 Which clearly explains what the sinful works of the flesh are and the Fruit of the Spirit.
As far as Sodom and Gommorah, Abraham could not find even 10 righteous men in the city. Lot's wife was turned into a pillar of salt for looking back as the cities were being destroyed after God specifically said do not look back. Genesis 18:24-33 You might find Chp. 19 very interesting since the Homosexual men of Sodom came to RAPE the 2 angels that were lodged at Lot's house. These 2 angels save Lot from these angry men and strike them blind for their wickedness. Then tell Lot to get himself and his family out of there because it is going to be destroyed. vs 17 they are warned to not look back and to keep moving .
God's Holy inspired word holds all the answers we need for salvation.
Christian in PA ( see profile)
2007-01-16 00:26:37
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answer #2
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answered by Penny Mae 7
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First of all the cities were DESTROYED not ruined. (homosexuality NOT greed) Second IF you would take the Word of God as I have,(and many others also) and used the original languages the Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic, to read and study the Word of God, YOU WOULD UNDERSTAND what the Word of God says. Get a Strong's Concordance and it will help you a great deal, IF you are not Spiritually Blinded. As one of the other answers has said (birdsflies) I could go on and on and give you Scriptures to touch on the subject also you have mentioned. Alas though, I am afraid that you would not understand until you have done some studying with UNDERSTANDING.
2007-01-15 22:43:51
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answer #3
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answered by Ex Head 6
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I think it is you that are off on your interpretation of the Bible. I Cor 6:9 used the word homosexual in the KJV written in 1611, so where do you get this 1958 bit?
Also give your proof for Sodom and Gommorah being about greed. This verse doesn't sound like greed to me.
Jude 1:7 just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities around them, since they in the same way as these indulged in gross immorality and went after strange flesh, are exhibited as an example in undergoing the punishment of eternal fire.
2007-01-15 22:29:30
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answer #4
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answered by oldguy63 7
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Yes, it is a sin to "quote God's word falsely for your own benefit." There are many people who do not know the Bible from cover to cover. In that sense, there are more than likely times that arise that a person may not know for sure what exactly the Bible has to say about certain things. But before you go & make up some random definition that sounds good to you about what it is saying, open it up & read it. There are reference pages in the back that you can look up the word or instance you are wanting to read about. The only way to know the truth is to read the Bible, it's all in there.
2007-01-15 23:46:24
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answer #5
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answered by tlcss06 1
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Unfortunately, the Bible's interpolation of the translations is full of inconsistencies, forgeries and lies created by man for it's own based ends. Several parts of the Bible was created by the sin of man. Therefore worshipping the Bible is idolatry. The inconsistencies, forgeries, and lies are swept under the carpet and denied. This is sin layered with sin.
This of course results in cult-like mass conditioning with the oppressive ecclesiastical forms of the Holy Inquisition. Ethnic cleansing (genocide) of millions of Muslims, Jews, and the Indigeonous peoples of North and South America was a glorious testimony to the triumph of Christianity throughout the world. Sin layered with sin.
Yes, It is a sin to misinterpret the Bible. St. Paul said, The letter kills, but the Spirit gives life.
2007-01-15 23:54:51
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answer #6
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answered by what it is 2
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Not to argue you do have some valid points and I would say yes it is a sin in the context you put it to misrepresent.
I think more times than not a person reading the Bible is looking for truth and direction and perhaps something they read fits into a event in their lives. Researching the context of the scripture often times reveals what the reader is claiming is actually something totally different but because it fit they use passages wrongly.
This brings me to my final answer. Please if a person represents scripture wrongly, correction is valuable and useful to the person.
2007-01-15 23:07:55
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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You just done what you said is wrong, Friend you can not pull one over me, I have been serving God 37 yrs. & I am aware of the Bible, Do you want me to give you all the true story about Sodom & Gomorrah, & Homosexuals, There is many veres I can use, & not even touch on the 2 you mentioned, Even though you mis-interpretated those subjects.
2007-01-15 22:26:36
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Gen.19:5 The men of Sodom say regarding the travelers "Bring them out that we may Know them." Lev. 18:22 (the whole chapter is about sexuality- who one can marry) says "and do not lie with a male, as with a woman, it is an abomination." What part of that is unclear? I would say that yes, it is a sin to wrest Scripture, to make it seem to say something that it clearly does not say. That would be "putting words in YHVH;s 'mouth'", or making Him a liar, by changing the message He gave us. However, it seems to me that it is you who are doing that, by somehow bending Scripture to cause it to allow deviant sexual behavior.
2007-01-15 22:38:25
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answer #9
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answered by hasse_john 7
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I see what you are saying. That would be deceptive, wouldn't it? Kind of like posting "Is it a sin to misinterpret the Bible," when your real question is, "Is it a sin to quote God's word falsely for your own benefit." All of us misinterpret the Bible, but not all of us do it intentionally to further our own agendas.
2007-01-15 22:28:01
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answer #10
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answered by celebduath 4
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Homosexuality is sin because it hurts and damages the people who do it.
Rectal cancer, second leading cause of death among homosexual males in the USA.
The Bible is full of quotes discussing Adultery. I would ask you why do you need homosexuality to NOT be a sin? What does that fulfill for you? Does it make what you do in the bedroom seem not as bad?
Yes, I know you're not gay, and you're right, no, it's none of my business. But that wasn't my question to you. Does it make what you do in the bedroom seem not as bad? So you have a girlfriend, are you intimate with her? (Don't really answer that question, just keep the answer in your head). Well if homosexuals are out there doing what they want, it makes sex before marriage seem not as bad, right? That was my point.
God defined marriage between one man and one woman. Then he further went on to define Adultery as any sex outside of marriage. The sin is adultery, accept it.
It occurs to me I didn't answer your question, but now I don't need to, since celebduath said it best.
2007-01-15 22:24:28
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answer #11
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answered by Last Ent Wife (RCIA) 7
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