Jesus was there for three days. He died on the cross for our sins and He went to hell for our sins and He overcame it. He did all of that for us.
2007-01-15 20:56:44
·
answer #1
·
answered by tracy211968 6
·
1⤊
0⤋
Jesus' "Hell" is simply his grave. The cave they placed him in.
To understand 'Hell' go to Revelation 20;14
(Revelation 20:14) And death and Ha′des were hurled into the lake of fire. This means the second death, the lake of fire.
Hades = Hell
The lake of fire is destruction,
So 'Hell' will be destroyed.
And it is associated with death.
When death is no more, neither will man's grave, in the ground or in the sea.
so "Hell" is man's grave.
Just where they put Jesus.
Three days later he was resurrected [ a standing up] not immediately to heaven, but to another 40 days on earth with his disciples, easting and drinking with him.
Jehovah God, Jesus' Father in heaven, had given him a new body that Mary Magdelene did not recognise. Jesus identified himself to her.
Later when Thomas doubted him [ doubting Thomas] Jesus showed him 'inflicted wounds',
But apparently the 'wounds' were identical to the wounds on the body Jesus 'formerly' had. the body, damaged, was disposed of by God himself.
Until Jesus was resurrected,he was subject to the scripture at
(Ecclesiastes 9:5-6) For the living are conscious that they will die; but as for the dead, they are conscious of nothing at all, neither do they anymore have wages, because the remembrance of them has been forgotten. 6Â Also, their love and their hate and their jealousy have already perished, and they have no portion anymore to time indefinite in anything that has to be done under the sun.
2007-01-16 05:11:03
·
answer #2
·
answered by pugjw9896 7
·
1⤊
0⤋
One must remember that we are talking about the Greek and Hebrew use of the term as in those days they didn't speak English....
In the old testament the word was the same as in the new
The word was "Sheol"... (Hebrew). which meant the grave..... the place without God....... Where the dead go.....
However, in the New Testament, it is also called: Hades (greek) the realm of the dead.
Yet, it is also called (in the new testament), Geena.... which means..... the place of punishment......
That Geena is associated with Gehenna... or Gehenna Fire..... or Lake of Fire... and is reserved for the very end of time......
But, Hell or Sheol... the grave... is where all spirits go when death has become the soul.......We all go to the grave.... it is where Christ went and wrestled with satan to attain those keys......
It is the only way to be king over Life and death........
He went and witnessed to those lost souls there... they were probably those who were held from the flood.......... Some received salvation by accepting life through Christ as the fulfillment of his purpose had come.... there was no need in having this portion of the 'cell' .... Satan received a new home.... "The Bottomles Pit"...........
the others were free who accepted...... Of those who died thereafter, there are two sides of it.... One is dark.. and the other is light......Christ is the light of it........ One day.... that place shall be emptied for judgements sake....... And all shall be called....
your sister,
Ginger
2007-01-16 05:10:20
·
answer #3
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
1⤋
He went to preach unto those OT saints, Their soul was in paridise part of hell, Remember the story of The rich man lifting up his eyes in hell & It was said there was a great gulf between the torment side of hell & the paridise part of hell, Those souls that was in paridiase part of hell waited for there redemption by looking TO Calvery as we now Look back to Calvery, That is why the Bible says that when Jesus rose from the dead, he brought every righteous soul with him out of Paridise & their graves were opened also, Now those OT saints is in Paridise part of Heaven.
2007-01-16 06:53:45
·
answer #4
·
answered by birdsflies 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
The ONLY New Testament mention of geenna, the Greek word translated, "hell" AFTER Jesus' death is in Jas 3:6 "The tongue also is a fire. The tongue is the most evil part of the body. It pollutes the whole person. It sets a person’s whole way of life on fire. And the tongue is set on fire by hell."
Since:
1. It is the ONLY use of the word other than by Jesus himself BEFORE HIS DEATH.
2. It IN NO WAY resembles your claim.
Your claim MUST BE FALSE.
2007-01-16 04:48:39
·
answer #5
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
1⤋
Jesus descended into the place of the dead in order to set free as Redeemer the people who died in need of Him, and He opened a passage from that place into Heaven. But also, it was important that Jesus meet His tormentors in Hell so that He might
demonstrate that He is Truly God and take back from the devil what is rightfully God's Because as St. Paul has said: No kingdom, power or principality can come between us and the love of our Savior, Jesus Christ [because of His tremendous love for us.] So it is Jesus who has the keys to death and to hell, and oneday they will be no more. In the book of Revelations the sons of God ask: Who is worthy to break the seals? And the answer comes: Only the Lamb of God, who was slain for the redemption of mankind. In summary, all that the Lord has done and will do is for the good of all mankind.
This is a summary taken from Catholicism. However, the specific answers of St. Thomas Aquinas [and all of the biblical references that he used to answer this teaching which was originally formulated in the Niacean Creed around 325 A.D. by Church Fathers guided by the Holy Spirit], is contained at the link shown below. The Theological Doctors of the Church have spent enormous time in devotional prayer to formulate the Lord's teachings and revelations into the Catechism which we now study. It is solidly and biblically based on Christ, the Summa or summit of Theology, the living Word. It is the Niacean Creed which says: He descended into Hell (or to the dead.)
From the Life of Thomas Aquinas: (1225 to 1274 A.D.)Philosopher, theologian, doctor of the Church (Angelicus Doctor), patron of Catholic universities, colleges, and schools.
It has been estimated that 6000 commentaries on St. Thomas's works have been written. Manuals of theology and of philosophy, composed with the intention of imparting his teaching, translations, and studies, or digests (études), of portions of his works have been published in profusion during the last six hundred years and to-day his name is in honour all over the world.
Part of what St. Thomas Aquinas argued:
On the contrary, It is said in the Creed: "He descended into hell": and the Apostle says (Ephesians 4:9): "Now that He ascended, what is it, but because He also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?"
For what difference is there of Paul or of Thomas Aquinas, both being recipients of the Divine teachings and of the Holy Spirit? Does one contradict the other? by no means. And in one of the greatest arguments of Aquinas paraphrased: For faith and reason alone are not enough. Divine Revelation through the Holy Spirit in that inpenetrable mystery of our God, reveals to us that which can not be contained in the minds of men.
2007-01-16 05:04:25
·
answer #6
·
answered by QueryJ 4
·
1⤊
1⤋
Because he bore the sins of the world, He went to hell and for three days He praeched to the sould in prison bearing witness that He was the Word they had rejected in times like the days of Noah, Jeremiah etc. After that He arose from the dead and ascended into heaven.
You may find this reference of the pit interesting:
Num 16:33 They, and all that appertained to them, went down alive into the pit, and the earth closed upon them: and they perished from among the congregation.
2007-01-16 05:03:11
·
answer #7
·
answered by Gre2000 3
·
2⤊
1⤋
This is the only reference to Jesus going to hell:
Acts 2:27 -- Because thou wilt not leave my soul in _hell_, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption....31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in _hell_, neither his flesh did see corruption. (KJV)
But, as you can see, more modern translations render it without translation:
Acts 2:27 -- For You will not leave my soul [spirit] in _Hades_, Nor will You allow Your Holy One to see corruption....31 he, foreseeing this, spoke concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that His soul [spirit] was not left in _Hades_, nor did His flesh see corruption. (NKJV)
The word 'hell' is an old English word for a pit in the ground; it is another word for the grave. It is used to translate the Greek word 'hades' and the Hebrew word 'sheol'. So, yes, Jesus was put in hell (a grave). But he was dead for that entire time of three days and three nights. Dead does not mean alive somewhere or somehow else. It means unconscious, unknowing, inanimate.
Also, 'soul' is a two part combination (Gen 2:7); it is made of body and spirit. Jesus' body was in the grave (under the ground) and his INERT spirit was in the care of God (Ecc 12:7 -- Then shall the dust [the body] return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.).
His "pure spirit" was not restored to life until the end of the three days and three nights.
What was he doing while dead? The same thing we all do when we die -- nothing -- he waits in his unconscious state for God to call him to life:
Ecclesiastes 9:5 -- For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten.
Job 14:14 -- If a man die, shall he live again? all the days of my appointed time will I wait, till my change come. 15 Thou shalt call, and I will answer thee: thou wilt have a desire to the work of thine hands.
2007-01-16 05:43:30
·
answer #8
·
answered by BC 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
Yes, hell is below. Many verses in the bible both old and new testament indicates hell and hades are below. Jesus went to hell to take away the keys of life and death from satan and to bring those OT believers who are in paradise (yes, paradise is below) into heaven. Most references are to Sheol. It is a holding place for OT believers and unbelievers.
2007-01-16 05:09:48
·
answer #9
·
answered by pretribber 2
·
1⤊
1⤋
A lot of christian sects do not teach that version of the story, I know it is part of the Catholic Dogma.
my understanding is he descended to hell to pay for the sins of man that he carried with him and to recover the souls of who had paid for their sins, so he could bring them up to heaven since they had died before he was born and had no way of being saved otherwise.
Like i stated before not every one teaches/includes that as part of the story.
2007-01-16 05:12:28
·
answer #10
·
answered by Stone K 6
·
2⤊
0⤋