There is a book out on this subject by a Bible scholar by the name of Bart Ehrman. He explains the many different mistranslations in the New Testament. Bible Scholars differ on exactly how many there are in the NT. But they do agree that there are between 300,000 to 500,000. The name of the book is Misquoting Jesus and it is simply fascinating. I know the title sounds controversial, but the book is simply an explanation of how these errors occur. It is a scholarly book and not an easy read. The mistranslations are rooted out. If you want the latest up to date translation of the Bible, you would have to buy the Oxford University Press Bible. That particular translation was done by the leading Hebrew, Aramaic, and Coptic language scholars in the world. Yes, the way people are reacting to your question is absolutely pathetic.
2007-01-15 16:28:28
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Many Christians are still using the King James version that was originally translated in 1611, during the time that Shakespeare was still alive. If you have ever tried to read Shakespeare, you will realize that the English language has changed a lot in the last 400 years. What was a good translation in the English of 400 years ago (or even 100 years ago) may well be a poor or confusing translation today. Languages change. Go back and read Dickens to see how much it has in just over a century. Then go purchase a dictionary. Look up almost any word and you will find that it has more than one possible shade of meaning. To quote your one example, the word "rest" can refer to "taking a nap" but also to "ceasing from an activity". Either meaning is proper English. But the word from which it was translated may not carry both meanings. So unless you understand which English meaning the original language implies, you can misunderstand something that is properly translared into English.
2016-03-28 23:41:22
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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No ancient book had been well translated. So, don't focus just in the Bible.
Christians are capable of a good debate, that is if the adversary will do mention to a general points and is opened mind for a god arguments and seems that you aren't the right person for a debate, you aren't open to listen, perhaps you have a closed mind, so is impossible for you to make objective arguments, you are just as Pharisee, that even knowing they were wrong they kept pushing their ideas. An idea shared by many doesn't come to be the truth, is just a big mistake hold among too many.
When you'd used the Bible your statements became to be not neutral because you were talking about certain theme, you didn't say "Why many ancient books are mistranslated?" you asked straight up "Why the Bible is mistranslated?" Once you mention an object of debate your statements can't be neutral because you are supporting or attacking certain object, in this case you stated attacking the Bible.
Perhaps, the translation you talking about it was taken from a Greek word used for wine as for grape to sustain the word in Syriac language very spoken by Jesus and other Hebrws those days for wine, but the people understood that it couldn't be grape juice, due we are talking about a wedding in here and some people said in the same paragraph that other hosts use to left the bad wine for the middle of the activity, we supposed that it was because they were already too happy to notice that the wine they were serving was 2nd class, but in here the person celabrating says "but you have started to serving the good wine ahead." Tell me, In what wedding have you been without drinking? Back then it was the same and because we are talking about a wedding we assume that it was not grape juice what it was been served in that wedding, but wine instead. So your argument of bad translation about the wine part was kicked.
2007-01-15 16:09:52
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answer #3
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answered by Javy 7
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Common men translated the bible from Aramaic to Greek to Latin to German To French to English, both old and new. Each time a sentence could be missed or a word miss translated. So it goes with any book. Do you think that the Iliad and The Oddesey are written the way Homer wrote them. Or that the Divine Comedy is a direct perfect translation of what Dante meant?
How about Cinderella. It was originally Cinders Ella, the maid. She had a glass slipper? No, it was Glace, french for Fur.
I am so sorry that I offended your delicate nature. I made a mistake on the Glace. I admit it. But I hold to the rest of it. Being mature, I do not attack you and your ignorance. Although I very well could. Pathetic? Maybe. Ignorant and prejudiced? Never.
2007-01-15 16:15:01
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answer #4
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answered by Jimfix 5
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Maybe the translation isn't the problem. Matbe the problem is that over time, the meaning of a word changes. The King James Bible was translated in 1611. The translation may have been perfectly accurate at the time, but perhaps the English language has deteriorated.
How would you interpret this today:
Jam 2:3 And ye have respect to him that weareth the gay clothing
2007-01-15 16:50:42
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answer #5
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answered by revulayshun 6
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Two reasons.
One, the Bible is old and was written in an arcane language.
Two, because the Bible is so old, you have to imagine that the geographic, historic, and scientific understanding of its writers was rather primitive, and thus, the writers were often confused or mistaken, and working through that has been difficult or at times impossible.
2007-01-15 17:45:46
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answer #6
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answered by FlashesOfBrilliance 1
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the bible is not the sorce of bad translation,,tranlation is done by us sinning men,,jesus warned the deciples repeatedly in the books of mathew ,mark, luke,and john,,,about men twisting the scriptures for their own gain,,and also the "doctrines of men"
we should take what the bible says..Religions today are so caught up in who's better than the other or who has the biggest church or the best preacher,,,,jesus said you would know the true religion by its fruit's Galatians 5:22 On the other hand, the fruitage of the spirit is love, joy, peace, long-suffering, kindness, goodness, faith, 23 mildness, self-control. Against such things there is no law. 24 Moreover, those who belong to Christ Jesus impaled the flesh together with its passions and desires.
2007-01-15 16:21:54
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answer #7
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answered by lowerthanaslave 2
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My translation teacher said that Bible translation needs to come across a lot of cultural differences. And Bibles do not usually aim at seeking the comprehension from all mankind, probably as a way to show it's superiority.
2007-01-15 16:11:08
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answer #8
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answered by I am only human 1
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Because when you sometimes translate stuff there isn't really a perfect translation. Also long ago someone had to sit there and do the work. Maybe they got lazy. Very lazy. The bible is long and big isn't it? Who in there right mind would give a very perfect and precise definition to something so big?
2007-01-15 16:12:29
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answer #9
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answered by Tai 3
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WHOA! Friend, instead of discussing translation preferences, Jesus and Moses reminded us that the most important focus should be learning God's Word and doing it.
How far you've been in your faith by translating them into life?
2007-01-15 16:14:45
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answer #10
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answered by heartspiritdivine 3
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