2006-12-30 19:20:49 · 8 answers · asked by Cyrus The Great 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Actually the founding fathers agreed to let the individual states decide on the matters regarding religion. That is why they said that "congress" shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion.
States were given this right back then because there were people who were going to refuse to ratify the bill of rights if it was not phrased in this way.
Years later, the meaning was changed by some politician. I learned this all years ago and can't remember some of the specifics, but if you want to talk to the founding fathers, you won't get the answers you were looking for.
2006-12-30 19:50:55 · answer #1 · answered by jkoons 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Or would that be to get the church out of the state?
2006-12-31 03:23:36 · answer #2 · answered by Nemesis 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The State should stay out of the business of the Church, and the Church should stay out of the business of the State. Let them all be tax-exempt as long as they don't tell the parishioners which lever to pull at the voting booth.
2006-12-31 03:47:54 · answer #3 · answered by waefijfaewfew 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Churches need to be free from government rule.
2006-12-31 03:23:24 · answer #4 · answered by G-Man 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think we need to send them both to the corner for a time out. Their property lines shouldn't even touch.
2006-12-31 08:07:30 · answer #5 · answered by metoo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, the document was to keep the state out of G-dly affairs and the liberals used it to try and kick G-d out of society. Lets right that wrong.
In Jesus Name!
David
2006-12-31 03:27:12 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
When did we learn how to go back
2006-12-31 03:28:01 · answer #7 · answered by Cindy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
ii believe religion and politics should be a NOMA and have no place together.
2006-12-31 03:27:12 · answer #8 · answered by duffmanhb 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋