ARTICLE I
There shall be firm and universal peace between the United States of America and the Mexican Republic, and between their respective countries, territories, cities, towns, and people, without exception of places or persons.
ARTICLE VIII
Mexicans now established in territories previously belonging to Mexico, and which remain for the future within the limits of the United States, as defined by the present treaty, shall be free to continue where they now reside, or to remove at any time to the Mexican Republic, retaining the property which they possess in the said territories, or disposing thereof, and removing the proceeds wherever they please, without their being subjected, on this account, to any contribution, tax, or charge whatever.
Those who shall prefer to remain in the said territories may either retain the title and rights of Mexican citizens, or acquire those of citizens of the United States. But they shall be under the obligation to make their election within one year
2006-12-30 19:17:32 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
Not sure what you want agreement on. It says what it says.
Sounds like the Mexicans are either that or Americans and they had a year to figure it out way back when.
Now is not part of that agreement to my understanding. That was over long ago. Now they are Mexicans period. For better or worse.
2006-12-30 19:37:58 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Um, sure. Those who were within the now US territories back when the treaty was signed could have stayed or left. They made that decision many generations ago. Those people are long dead, and their descendants are wherever the ancestors decided to go. Those who stayed here are US citizens and are mostly against illegal immigration.
You do see the 'now established' part yet, right? The negative inference is that people not 'now established' in new US territories at the time the treaty was signed do NOT have this right.
2006-12-31 10:14:09 · answer #2 · answered by DAR 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
On February 2, 1848 the Treaty was signed in Guadalupe Hidalgo.
158 years ago!!!?
the border is setup United States of America on one side and Mexico on the other!!!
2006-12-31 04:07:40 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
With all due respect, idiot, that was for the end of the Mexican American war. That was Feb. 2, 1848. Kind of outdated evidence. Besides, there are no Mexican territories in the US.
2007-01-03 15:07:41 · answer #4 · answered by Dizney 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The one year is up don't you think?
Actually, after the Louisiana Purchase US illegal immigrants entered the country of Mexico. They then decided to annex part of a country that did not belong to them, Mexico! Same in California!
Well, enter Santa Anna and President Polk! We had a bigger army so we gained about 6 states!
Seems we don't like it when they come back in parts of a country that was stolen by force from them! The War was unpopular as well!
2006-12-31 03:40:18 · answer #5 · answered by cantcu 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
As everyone else has wondered, what do you believe still needs to be agreed upon? It is way too late to vote on signing this 158-year-old treaty!
2006-12-31 05:30:35 · answer #6 · answered by dognhorsemom 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Man we all know that the US stole all that land from mexico
2007-01-02 01:49:45 · answer #7 · answered by Benito S 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋