that was a test to see if the woman was telling the truth or not about her husband's accusations. If she was telling the truth, her thighs wouldn't wither. If she lied, her thighs would wither...I mean, what the hell was in that water? and what matter would water make if she was lying? Too bizarre. So many women must have been stoned to death for nothing while culprits got away scott free.
2006-12-20 15:57:37
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answer #1
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answered by Shinigami 7
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I'm a Christian, and I'm not denying the Bible. However, I do think that you're misinterpreting it. Through this whole passage, from Numbers 5:11 to Numbers 5:31, it does not mention aborting (destroying the life of) a baby that has already been conceived. It does say that an adulterous woman would become barren (not able to conceive children). In this culture, many children were good. If a women was barren, it didn't mean that she should go around and commit adultery because she could get away with it. It meant that she was in disgrace. In Luke 1, Elizabeth becomes pregnant after a long time of praying for a child. The angel Gabriel announced to her husband that she would have a child. Luke 1:24-25 says, "After this his wife Elizabeth became pregnant and for five months remained in seclusion. 'The Lord has done this for me,' she said. 'In these days he has shown his favor and taken away my disgrace among the people.'" It wasn't an "okay thing" to have an abortion. It wasn't a way to get out of the responsibility of raising children. Being barren was a disgrace. Some people probably treated Elizabeth like she was a bad person or there was something wrong with her because she couldn't have children. (She wasn't-see Luke 1:5-7.) Since women wanted to have children, it would have been a terrible thing to have an abortion.
2006-12-20 15:57:49
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answer #2
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answered by RJoy 2
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The story of the forgiven Adulteress was a lesson to readers about the irony of judging others. Not one could cast a stone because not one was without sin. We do not put aduterers to death. As for rapists, rape is not sex between two consenting adults. Rape is the taking of something that doesn't belong to you, against the will of the owner. We punish thieves, we punish rapists. God doesn't say let the rapists go free, God says love the sinner.....hate the sin.
2016-05-23 03:25:33
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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I will never deny the words and/or teachings of the Bible.
What you have listed is only partial truth.
The Test for an Unfaithful Wife
Numbers 5:11, the Lord is speaking to Moses and telling Moses how to test for an unfaithful wife through the priest.
Better yet, read for yourself.
11 Then the LORD said to Moses, 12 "Speak to the Israelites and say to them: 'If a man's wife goes astray and is unfaithful to him 13 by sleeping with another man, and this is hidden from her husband and her impurity is undetected (since there is no witness against her and she has not been caught in the act), 14 and if feelings of jealousy come over her husband and he suspects his wife and she is impure—or if he is jealous and suspects her even though she is not impure- 15 then he is to take his wife to the priest. He must also take an offering of a tenth of an ephah of barley flour on her behalf. He must not pour oil on it or put incense on it, because it is a grain offering for jealousy, a reminder offering to draw attention to guilt.
16 " 'The priest shall bring her and have her stand before the LORD. 17 Then he shall take some holy water in a clay jar and put some dust from the tabernacle floor into the water. 18 After the priest has had the woman stand before the LORD, he shall loosen her hair and place in her hands the reminder offering, the grain offering for jealousy, while he himself holds the bitter water that brings a curse. 19 Then the priest shall put the woman under oath and say to her, "If no other man has slept with you and you have not gone astray and become impure while married to your husband, may this bitter water that brings a curse not harm you. 20 But if you have gone astray while married to your husband and you have defiled yourself by sleeping with a man other than your husband"- 21 here the priest is to put the woman under this curse of the oath-"may the LORD cause your people to curse and denounce you when he causes your thigh to waste away and your abdomen to swell. 22 May this water that brings a curse enter your body so that your abdomen swells and your thigh wastes away." " 'Then the woman is to say, "Amen. So be it."
23 " 'The priest is to write these curses on a scroll and then wash them off into the bitter water. 24 He shall have the woman drink the bitter water that brings a curse, and this water will enter her and cause bitter suffering. 25 The priest is to take from her hands the grain offering for jealousy, wave it before the LORD and bring it to the altar. 26 The priest is then to take a handful of the grain offering as a memorial offering and burn it on the altar; after that, he is to have the woman drink the water. 27 If she has defiled herself and been unfaithful to her husband, then when she is made to drink the water that brings a curse, it will go into her and cause bitter suffering; her abdomen will swell and her thigh waste away, and she will become accursed among her people. 28 If, however, the woman has not defiled herself and is free from impurity, she will be cleared of guilt and will be able to have children.
29 " 'This, then, is the law of jealousy when a woman goes astray and defiles herself while married to her husband, 30 or when feelings of jealousy come over a man because he suspects his wife. The priest is to have her stand before the LORD and is to apply this entire law to her. 31 The husband will be innocent of any wrongdoing, but the woman will bear the consequences of her sin.' "
2006-12-20 15:53:27
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answer #4
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answered by Jo 4
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The Numbers Laws are for the Israelites not Christians.
You forget that if the woman did not cheat on the husband and was actually impregnated by the husband and not someone else then the curse doesn't work.
28 However, if the woman has not defiled herself but she is clean, she must then be free from such punishment; and she must be made pregnant with semen.
2006-12-20 15:47:10
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Where did you get abortion out of those verses? The lord is the one who judged those women not man. That verse was mostly for women so they could prove to their husbands that they were not cheating by drinking a water that was blessed by a holy man. The man then would have to admit that they were not doing any thing wrong or deny the faith. That way a women could prove her self to be clean and the husband would have legal ground for action against her.
2006-12-20 15:52:58
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answer #6
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answered by saintrose 6
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Wow
So lets ask over half of the women who have an abortion if they where Married in the first place
2006-12-20 15:45:31
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answer #7
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answered by snuggels102 6
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You twist scripture to your own damnation !! The bible does not permit abortion, as abortion is murder of a innocent unborn child, & God loves children just as Jesus said
Mat 18:14 Even so it is not the will of your Father which is in heaven, that one of these little ones should perish.
Mat 19:14 But Jesus said, Suffer little children, and forbid them not, to come unto me: for of such is the kingdom of heaven.
Mat 18:6 But whoso shall offend one of these little ones which believe in me, it were better for him that a millstone were hanged about his neck, and that he were drowned in the depth of the sea.
look at the whole context of the scripture before you try to quote it as you have missed what God is saying & putting man made iideas into the theme !!!!
2006-12-20 15:54:56
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answer #8
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answered by ? 2
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It says much weightier things than this. "The wicked will be turned back to hell; even all the nations that forget God" (Psalm 9:17)
"But for the cowardly and unbelieving and detestable, and murderers and fornicators and sorcerers and idolaters and all liars, their part will be in the lake that burns with fire and brimstone, which is the second death" (Revelation 21:8)
2006-12-20 15:55:45
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answer #9
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answered by wefmeister 7
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whats that have to do with abortion
The Hebrew language is very complex allot of the verbs can be interpreted two ways, passively or aggressively. The text could say; God caused ....... When the original Hebrew text read God allowed. God allows certain things because of the choices we make and because He gave us a free will to do so. You have to know your translations to give proper interpretation and I am the first one to admit I don't know it all
2006-12-20 15:44:35
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answer #10
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answered by ? 4
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