befor you answer and send me hate mail please read Exodus 32: 7-14 to under stand the question wouldn't that make the bible flawed or some what untrue if God is perfect(defind by his own laws.)
2006-12-20 07:15:22 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
God cannot sin, nor will He tolerate sin.
The passage that you asked us to look at doesn't describe God sinning at all.
First, you must look at God's character. He is holy (absolutely good and pure) and just.
People sin against God, not the other way around. If you were to go to court for a crime you committed, would you say the judge is sinning by sentencing you to jail? (Well, you might think that, but it wouldn't be true.) The same with God. He is the ultimate Judge of the universe, and doesn't sin.
In the text you mentioned, you will notice that it was Israel who corrupted themselves, and sinned against God. He was going to use His righteous wrath to inflict judgment on them, but Moses interceded on their behalf.
The word translated "evil" (verse 14) in the King James, doesn't mean "evil" as in sin. It is the Hebrew word "ra`" (Pronounced rah) and is Strong's Ref. # 7451 which is derived from HSN7489; bad or (as noun) evil (natural or moral).
In the King James, it can mean adversity, affliction, bad, calamity, + displease(-ure), distress, evil([-favouredness], man, thing), + exceedingly, X great, grief(-vous), harm, heavy, hurt(-ful), ill (favoured), + mark, mischief(-vous), misery, naught(-ty), noisome, + not please, sad(-ly), sore, sorrow, trouble, vex, wicked(-ly, -ness, one), worse(-st), wretchedness, wrong. [Including feminine raaah; as adjective or noun.].
Other Bible translations use disaster, harm, and threat in place of evil.
Remember, God is the object of sin, not the cause.
2006-12-20 07:49:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Why, because He changed his mind after Moses prevailed on Him for mercy? Is God not allowed to change his mind? Is the idea that he MIGHT change his mind somehow not possible?
And, if we allow that He CAN change his mind about things, (as we see He did in Exodus 32 verses 7-14), then how do we know that He hasn't done so numerous times SINCE then? Including various things in the New Testament?
2006-12-20 07:40:38 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
God did not sin there. Or anywhere else in the Bible for that matter. Maybe you think God was sinning because he was angry. God's anger was just. The people were sinning and worshipping another God which they knew they were not supposed to do.
Jesus had the ability to sin. While he was God he was also human. If he was not able to sin then the temptations would not have been real to him. He had the ability NOT to sin. See what I mean?
2006-12-20 07:20:00 · answer #3 · answered by cnm 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Excellent question it really makes you think. I suppose it's possible that God could sin, but then again if it's God who decides what qualifies as sin then could he really violate something judged by his own opinion? In the scripture you quoted God only considered sin he did not commit it. I suppose it's better to say that God may be capable of temptation, but always rises above. Also we must consider if it would really be sin for God to punish those that had wronged him personally. After all we don't. Thank God for mercy!
2006-12-20 07:31:39 · answer #4 · answered by Jeremy 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there is not any flaw in God's applications or introduction. He knows all issues. allowing loose will and imperfection also helps experience, information, and private progression, in different words, to make sure that his little ones to receive perfection, they ought to experience issues for themselves. God won't be able to experience it for them. If God made Adam & Eve "proper" like you reported, then they'd under no circumstances have chosen evil or good and ought to under no circumstances were evil or good and would were stopped from studying, progressing or doing some thing of any outcome because they does not be doing it, God would. Hebrews 5 8 although he were a Son, yet discovered he obedience with the help of the failings which he suffered; 9 And being made proper, he grew to change into the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him How does he make issues proper? He instructions us to be proper, yet he does not anticipate it as we talk or abruptly, yet he does anticipate us to attempt. He ought to not make us proper with out annoying circumstances, suffering, imperfections, mortality, or obedience because then we does not being doing some thing yet being forced to do it and then we does not be doing it , God would. Matthew 5 40 8 Be ye hence proper, on the same time as your Father that's in heaven is proper.
2016-12-01 00:26:54 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know if you refer to verse 14, about feeling regret.
If so, is feeling regret here the same as sinning ?
The bible helps us to see that God is love and that he is holy. (1 John 4:8;Isa 6:3)
Therefor, he cannot sin (go against his standards).
God felt regret, grief, and even hurt, not because his own actions were mistaken, but because man's wickedness became abundant.
The Creator regretted that it had become necessary to destroy all mankind except Noah and his family. God assures us: 'I take no delight in the death of the wicked.'-Ezekiel 33:11.
M'Clintock and Strong's Cyclopaedia comments: "God himself is said to repent [Hebrew na·cham´, feel regret]; but this can only be understood of his altering his conduct towards his creatures, either in the bestowing of good or infliction of evil-which change in the divine conduct is founded on a change in his creatures; and thus, speaking after the manner of men, God is said to repent." (1894, Vol. VIII, p. 1042)
God's righteous standards remain constant, stable, unchanging, free from fluctuation. (Mal 3:6; Jas 1:17) No circumstance can cause him to change his mind about these, to turn from them, or to abandon them. However, the attitude and reactions of his intelligent creatures toward those perfect standards and toward God's application of them can be good or bad. If good, this is pleasing to God; if bad, it causes regret.
2006-12-20 07:39:12 · answer #6 · answered by volunteer teacher 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was tempted,but he did not sin. I think he can sin,but he chooses not to.
But then again-to God what is sin?Who would he be sinning against?Him/Itself?
exodus 32:14 is a very interesting verse.He repented...but why would he have to repent?He's God!
2006-12-20 07:20:21 · answer #7 · answered by Myaloo 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jesus-as a man was certainly open to sin yet He didn't. Had Jesus sinned, He would have disqualified Himself from being our Savior. But, Yes, he could've sinned if He was weak like us.
2006-12-20 07:28:38 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
How is not wiping out a nation a sin?
2006-12-20 07:26:02 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I do not see any sin there. God was mad, but HE did not act upon His anger, so there is no sin there.
2006-12-20 07:24:07 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋