This is the third time im tryng to post this question.
Yahoo refuses to post it, I do not know why.
I have been refreshing my e-mail, and nothing. No reason.
Here it is if it passes. If it does not then I wish for Yahoo to just delete my account. Is this question wrong?
Does Greek grammer ever allow nouns to be definite whether or not the Greek definite article (the) is present? Example, John 1:1
Also Heb. 10:31, esi keiras theou zontos (into the hands of the living God). The "New World Translation" puts the two "the"s here, but puts an "A" in John 1:1. please explain
2006-12-20 05:27:21 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
WOW it post!!!!!!!!!
2006-12-20 05:29:40 · update #1
Thank you Suzanne
2006-12-20 05:44:16 · update #2
Ok Godisamor.
Why did they put a letter a in the place of the letter "the" in John !:! changing it from The God, to a god. When greek grammer dictates it to be (the).
2006-12-20 06:05:17 · update #3
No, I think this is a good question. Please note that the word theos; in John 1:1 in the second occurrence is without the definite article(ho) it is placed before the verb in the sentence, (in the
Greek language this is significant. It is also noteworthy that many translators that insist on rendering this "The Word was God" do however render other passages where the same indefinite article is used in the same exact way, an example would be John 16:70, Judas Iscariot is referred to be " a devil" not "The Devil" and John 9:17; Jesus is described as "a prophet" not "The Prophet". You can thus see the inconsistency with some translators. I also have plenty of references that are not even a Jehovah Witness source that agree with this.
Heb. 10:31--here you need to look at the syntax, The Greek interlinear says: Fearful(thing) the to fall in into hands of God living. So you can see that the order of the words has a bearing on the correct rendering of the translation. I really hope this helps--if it doesn't you can email me with further questions or clarifications.
2006-12-20 07:04:18 · answer #1 · answered by nicky 3 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Greek Orthodox calls all other "bibles" salat or salad. They are a mix of whatever can along or whomever came along with an attitude and a quill pen. Greek has changed very little in 3000 years and the original "bible' was in greek. Go with the greek.
2006-12-20 13:32:14 · answer #2 · answered by bocasbeachbum 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I wanted to add that the sight that Suzanne gave is not reputable. It has a hidden agenda, and a lot of the sources weren't even authentic. Their agenda is to spread lies about the witnesses; exposing false teaching is one thing, but they are spreading slanderous lies. For a credible source go to www.watchtower.com-thank you. peace out.
2006-12-20 16:32:58 · answer #3 · answered by coolcat 2 · 4⤊ 1⤋
Greek Hebrew is the original one
2006-12-20 13:31:44 · answer #4 · answered by sunflare63 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
You should try the language section. You might get a better answer.
2006-12-20 13:30:19 · answer #5 · answered by korngoddess1027 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As hard as I tried, I could not make any sense out of your "quesiton." As for loving JW's. Jesus does, whether they like it or not. A Blessed Christmas to you.
2006-12-20 13:32:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
The answer to your question can be found in Section 6 here:
http://blueletterbible.org/study/cults/exposejw/chap1.html
Peace.
2006-12-20 13:36:38 · answer #7 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0⤊ 5⤋
im sorry can you refrase your question.. i dont understand (being sincere)
2006-12-20 13:50:56 · answer #8 · answered by godisamor 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋