English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Was Mary created to fulfill the prophesy of Genesis 3:15 in the very first instance of her conception, by a singular Grace and privelege granted by God the Father, in view of the merit of Jesus Christ, the Savior of all humanity, preserved from the taint of original sin? Was she the New Eve made perfect, the New Tabernacle, the New Ark of the Covenant?

With Verification in Scripture, Tradition, and Teaching Authority of the Church:
Luke 1:37, Ex 25:11-21, Gen 3:15, Jn 19:26,
Revelation 11:19, and 12:1 ark in heaven = woman clothed with sun

2006-12-20 04:50:56 · 7 answers · asked by Lives7 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

If God created Eve perfect in the beginning, is God capable of creating the Blessed Virgin Mary perfectly to carrying the Redeemer of the world? Is it possible?

2006-12-20 05:21:43 · update #1

7 answers

Finally some truth. Of course

2006-12-20 04:58:31 · answer #1 · answered by Gods child 6 · 2 1

Mary was not perfect. She was not exempt from Original Sin. Mary was a human being, correct? Yes. 100% human. So she sinned just like all the rest of us do. The angel didn't tell her she was perfect, the angel said God has found favor with you. So basically she was chosen, not sinless. Mary does not have a higher status than any other human beings. She should not be worshipped or prayed to because she does not have a divine nature. It goes like this: humans->angels->God. The only people who have gone to heaven directly without dying first are Elijah (2 Kings 2:11) and Enoch (Hebrews 11:5).

Catholic dogma has exalted Mary in an irresponsible and idolatrous way. She is declared to have been free from all original sin (the dogma of the Immaculate Conception, first declared in 1854; Catechism 491-492), free from any actual sin during her life (Catechism 411), and perpetually a virgin even after the birth of Jesus (Catechism 499-500).

The first Church father to affirm explicitly the assumption of Mary in the West was Gregory of Tours in 590 A.D. But the basis for his teaching was not the tradition of the Church but his acceptance of an apocryphal Gospel known as the "Transitus Beatae Mariae" which we first hear of at the end of the fifth century and which was spuriously attributed to Melito of Sardis.

This is truly an amazing dogma, yet there is no Scriptural proof for it, and even the Roman Catholic writer Eamon Duffy concedes that, ‘there is, clearly, no historical evidence whatsoever for it ...’ (Eamon Duffy, What Catholics Believe About Mary (London: Catholic Truth Society, 1989), p. 17).

Adam and Eve were perfect in the beginning until they sinned. After that point no one except for Jesus Christ has lived a perfect, sinless life.

2006-12-20 12:57:07 · answer #2 · answered by cnm 4 · 0 0

No. I think you are interpreting these Scriptures with presuppositions about Mary. She was a virtuous woman no doubt-but sinless, no way. There has only been one sinless human and that was Jesus. Mary was born with original sin. The 'sin nature' from original sin is passed down through the 'seed of the father' not the mother. Therefore, Jesus' sinless birth was not due to Mary, but the 'seed of God'. Mary was "just" the vessel.
The only scripture you mention that can even be attempted to tie in with your interpretation is Gen 3:15, and it can not give sufficient evidence to even begin to suggest what you propose.
I am afraid what has happened here, is that you believe something taught by your church, and you are bending and twisting the scripture to fit that belief. Looking at this from the outside of your belief-it is obvious that there is no connection.

2006-12-20 13:17:01 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

I don't believe so. But then, I don't believe that Jesus was the son of god, either.

I believe that Jesus was a great teacher and social activist, and that his parents were probably Mary and Joseph. Makes sense to me - Mary and Joseph were engaged. They probably did what most engaged people do....and had a baby 9 months later.

I believe that Jesus, Mary and Joseph were all ordinary mortals.

2006-12-20 12:58:48 · answer #4 · answered by catrionn 6 · 0 1

I'm confused. Mary was not perfect even after she bore Christ.

Luke 2
48When his parents saw him, they were astonished. His mother said to him, "Son, why have you treated us like this? Your father and I have been anxiously searching for you." 49"Why were you searching for me?" he asked. "Didn't you know I had to be in my Father's house?" 50But they did not understand what he was saying to them.

John 2
3When the wine was gone, Jesus' mother said to him, "They have no more wine." 4"Dear woman, why do you involve me?" Jesus replied, "My time has not yet come."

2006-12-20 13:02:28 · answer #5 · answered by Night Shade 1 · 1 0

She was a very young women, married to a much older guy, who one day had extra marital relations with a boyfriend called Gabriel. She got pregnant because there were no condoms at that time. She invented a nice story about it and Joseph, who was a good guy decided to raise her child as his own.
It is nicely related with some edulcoration in tales and legends of the middle east.

Ramen !

2006-12-20 12:55:16 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

no

2006-12-20 12:52:58 · answer #7 · answered by Sean 5 · 1 0

fedest.com, questions and answers