I'm looking for pastors or christian leaders biblical take on the subject. it's a dicussion my wife and I are having. She feels based on the dictionary definition of Sodomy, oral sex is wrong in the biblical sense.
2006-12-20 03:07:38 · 14 answers · asked by Ben D 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
if it is performed in a homosexual manor yes. but i don't know for sure as far as the opposite sex manor. i don't think it is though.
2006-12-20 03:13:20 · answer #1 · answered by Thumbs down me now 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is very interesting.
I've looked it up, and some dictionaries include oral under sodomy, others do not.
They all do include anal though.
As for the conversation, from a Biblical standpoint, the Bible is the word of God, a dictionary the definition men have given words.
2006-12-20 03:56:11 · answer #2 · answered by p_rutherford2003 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well in the Song of Songs. There is a reference made to Mandrakes (phallic shaped). The reference goes like this, "The mandrakes sure do smell sweet this year."
Sodomy is a sin. Oral sex within marriage is a delight and a blessing.
2006-12-20 03:39:42 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
First of all, sex, in the bible falls into two catagories, sex within marriage and sin. Within marriage the bible says the marriage bed is undefiled. Some take this to mean that anything goes in marriage. Others of a more conservative bent say that sex should only be for the purpose of creating children. However, Paul in his epistles says that married people should "come together often except during times of fasting." So, I'd say it depends on which camp you more agree with...have fun!
2006-12-20 03:25:42 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is my understanding that sodomy is really a state in which the person or people are refusing the will of god and or ignoring the commandments and teachings of god . the act of sodomy is most often thought to be anal sex.
the difference i see here for the two of you is that you are married. some say that in marriage sex with your spouse is fine as it is within the marriage however a more stick interpretation of this teaching is that sex is for the purpose of having a child.
sex without the intent to have a child would be a violation of the will of God and there for be a form a sodomy as it is a sexual form of disobedience .
the roman catholic church has been teaching that sex with ones spouse is acceptable so long as no artificial birth control is used.
i am not sure how they arrived at this . i do wonder how they view sex within a marriage after the woman is post menopausal.
my own view is that God works in ways that are understood well by people who want to understand and who seek to never do anything that is not pleasing to him.
so i think that it is best if both of you read the bible together discuss what you understand the meaning of it to be as you have been doing pray and then listen . listen for God to answer you .
the ways in which God answers prayers are perhaphs numerous i suspect that in the case of your question the answer might come in the form of a feeling of either guilt or freedom of guilt .
sex that is leaves a person feeling free from guilt as afterward is one way that God might be speaking to people but the validity of that view is not something i am capable of knowing .
i know only that God did mean for there to be love:marriage, for some and for others such as the unicks no sex .
i think you two should trully follow your feelings and understanding no matter how great or limited it is so long as the desire to be pleasing to God is true and your attempt to understand his teachings are true then sin of any kind is far less likely to come from your acts . continued prayer and confession will along with belief in Christ leave you free from stain .
i pray your marriage your faith and your love of each other and of god and all things from god continues to grow each day .
remember Christ is the reason for THE MASS OF CHRIST ..ON THE 25 OF THIS MONTH.
2006-12-23 04:14:52 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Is oral sex wrong between married couples okay?
The Bible makes no clear mention of oral sex at all. Therefore, it is difficult to produce an official biblical position. Nevertheless, based on the information that follows oral sex is not sinful and that it is permissible only within the bonds of marriage between a husband and wife.
The book Song of Solomon is a love poem between a husband and wife. This book is seen in two senses: physical love and a description of God's love for His church. Either way, the book definitely encourages a husband and wife to enjoy the sexual pleasures of one another. It is in this beautiful book that two scriptures appear which may shed light on the issue of oral sex. Let's take a look.
Song 2:3, "Like an apple tree among the trees of the forest, so is my beloved among the young men. In his shade I took great delight and sat down, and his fruit was sweet to my taste."
Song 4:16, "Awake, O north wind, and come, wind of the south; make my garden breathe out fragrance. Let its spices be wafted abroad. May my beloved come into his garden and eat its choice fruits!”
Notice in Song 2:3 that it says, "...and his fruit was sweet to my taste." Obviously this involves very intimate experience. Tasting one another can have a wide variety of applications. It appears that this is a veiled way of alluding to oral sex. Furthermore, if we look at Song 7:7 we read, “I said, ‘I will climb the palm tree. I will take hold of its fruit stalks.’ Oh, may your breasts be like clusters of the vine." Apparently, fondling of the breasts is meant here. If such enjoyment of the body is intended, and since tasting (which involves the mouth) is part of that expression, it would seem safe to say that oral sex is permissible.
What does it mean to eat the choice fruits of his garden in 4:16? She is saying that she is "his garden" and that she desires that he eat of her fruit.
The poetic use of metaphors in describing the physical relationship is sometimes hard to fully apprehend, but it seems obvious from the context that intimate sexual union is implied.
"The beloved’s request that the winds blow on her garden, that is, herself (cf. vv. 12, 15) was a delicate, poetically beautiful invitation to her lover to fully possess her (come into her). She wished to be his with her charms as available as fruit on a tree."1
Therefore, oral sex is permissible between a husband and wife.
2006-12-20 03:09:59 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
I don't know about it being sodomy, but oral sex is definitely fun. Second only to actual intercourse. EDIT: Momma bear, are there homosexual manors? I thought most of them lived in apartments or something, no doubt they're lavishly decorated, but I don't think that makes them "manors". EDIT TWO: Why the thumbs down? Apparently SOMEBODY isn't getting any head.
2006-12-20 03:13:00 · answer #7 · answered by enslavementality 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is wrong! Men and women were made to mate the proper way, even the animals don't have oral sex! What does this tell you? Those private parts of the human body were made to urinate out of!
2006-12-20 03:12:46 · answer #8 · answered by Gerry 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
There are a couple of web sites to go to where pastors discuss this issue, but I was always taught the Sin of Sodom was anal sex
2006-12-20 03:10:24 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
From what I was taught, at a Baptist church, oral sex is a sin.(Not my opinion, just theirs)
However the marriage bed is sacred, so ANYTHING is okay between two married people.
2006-12-20 03:10:29 · answer #10 · answered by sweetie_baby 6 · 4⤊ 0⤋