If there were 100 people in the study, the study lasted 1 year.
2006-12-07 05:23:36
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answer #1
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answered by eilishaa 6
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RE:
What does it mean 100 person years in a study on a population?
I am reading a primary article on a study about the risk of congestive heart failure in rheumatoid arthritis. For the results they say: "The CHF incidence rates were 1.99 and 1.16 cases per 100 person-years in patients with RA and in non-RA subjects...." I just wanted to know what 100...
2015-08-06 10:47:27
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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1 person followed for 100 years is the same as 100 people followed for 1 year so far as medical studies are concerned. This is done when events - such as heart failure - are unlikely to occur in order to demonstrate statistical validity. Unfortunately the very notion of person years is statistically invalid.
2006-12-07 06:03:16
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answer #3
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answered by john e russo md facm faafp 7
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I believe it is somewhat of a positive feedback loop--the more understanding of nature and technology advance, the more tools we have to further explore nature and innovate through technology. This causes a spill-over from one field of science to another, as well as providing tools within one field for further exploration. For example, the principles of an MRI machine are based in particle physics, yet it has produced great advances in fields such as neurology, by allowing the non-invasive study of organs in a living person. These have led to advancements in medicine, psychology etc. Or another obvious example would be the advancement in computers. Computers are a direct result of the study of electrodynamics and other branches of physics. Computers now allow theorists to make more advanced models and test their hypotheses, or to detect the results from an instrument more precisely. As a result, the understanding of just about every field, be it physics, astronomy, biology etc has benefited, and that, in turn, has helped fuel advancements in technology, both by using newly discovered principles, and as a means of necessity for further study. We've seen this type of exponential growth for much of modern human history. Many anthropologists believe is began in earnest during the agricultural revolution (the discovery/invention of farming). Growing crops meant you don't have to spend all day searching for food. This means you have time to sit around and invent things. These inventions, in turn, allow you to farm more efficiently, and therefore support larger centralized populations, and allows for division of labor, because not every has to be involved just in getting food. So you have people whose jobs it is just to create more tools for basic necessities like food and shelter--you get architects, blacksmiths, carpenters etc. You can read about this idea in detail in a book called "Guns, Germs and Steel" Then another major factor toward the exponential growth in both population and technological advancement is the enlightenment, or the "age of reason" coming to be. Once humans could really cut through the dogmatic BS and really formulate a system for proving or disproving ideas in a rational way (the scientific method), this just fast-tracked human advancement that much more. I must reiterate the what others have said, however, that it is a gradual process that has been taking place consistently for thousands of years. Without simple electrical circuits like a telegraph machine, you never get to computers. Without primitive experimentation on electricity using Leyden jars, you have no telegraph. It's all a continuum of discovery, design, and improvement. And while has sped up, it has also happened continuously for at least 8-10,000 years.
2016-04-05 00:36:26
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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