Just looking at one that is claimed by many Christians as proof, Micah 5:2, I wonder.
It says: But thou, Beth-lehem Ephratah, though thou be little amon the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.
The obvious question to me is this: When did Jesus ever rule over Israel? One might say that he shall, when he rules over the world, but then why didn't the prophesey say that he would rule over the world? Even if we accept this answer, isn't that a prophesey yet to be filled?
Just curious as to where others stand on this.
2006-12-01 15:26:00 · 20 answers · asked by Deirdre H 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
As a note, I would really like the actual quote addressed. Some have tried, but not actually convincingly. The one who said that this one hasn't been fulfilled "yet" would indicate that it shouldn't be considered as prophesey fulfilled.
2006-12-01 15:43:01 · update #1
People keep missing the point... This "prophesey" is claimed to be one that has been fulfilled, and is proof of Jesus' being the messiah. If it hasn't happened yet, how can it be proof? Claims that it isn't necessary to have happened yet make it irrelevant as "proof". If it's a fulfilled prophesey, it must have happned already, and it simply hans't, therefore it can't count as one of the many fulfilled propheseys.
2006-12-01 15:47:11 · update #2
If Jesus fulfilled any prophesies you would think that the Jews would have noticed.
They didn't.
Love and blessings Don
2006-12-01 15:30:43 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
When did Jesus ever rule over Israel?
"shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler"
You apparently missed the little words . . . "is to be".
You have assumed incorrectly that Christ's temporal existence must fullfil this scripture for it to be true. However, there is no definite time period associated with the words "is to be". It could refer to His earthly life or to His Second Coming. Since it is obvious from your own statement that it was not fullfiled when He was on earth it must apply to the Second Coming.
Christ will only rule the world in the sense that He will rule over all of the redeemed.
The reason that the prophecy does not say that "Christ will rule over the world" is because the world is not Israel. The redeemed will make up Israel . . . Both gentile and Jew.
Additional note for Deirdre H: It is really quite simple if you will just read the verse you quoted. Christ was born in Beth-lehem . He fullfiled many prophecies beside this one stating that he would come out of Beth-lehem. So the proof is simple. Christ fullfilled all the prophecies for His First Coming and Christ will fullfil all of the prophecies for His Second Coming.
2006-12-01 23:40:11 · answer #2 · answered by Mr Answer 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus fulfilled over 300 Old Testament prophecies. Not enough space here to list them, but you can just type in ...Jesus fulfilled 300 prophecies...and search it on the web. A few are: born in Bethlehem, born to a virgin, would be beaten beyond recognition , then killed, yet not a bone was broken.
About the verse you mentioned, it's cross reference is Isaiah 9:6 which says the government will be on his Shoulders. It refers to The eternal reign of Christ when all of the saved are called Israel.
2006-12-01 23:38:59 · answer #3 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Israel is Gods chosen people. The bible makes reference to someday the 12 apostles will judge the nations of Israel in heaven. Jesus will rule over all the world in the life to come but there is such a special relation between Jesus the Messiah and Gods Chosen people.
I believe the bible is God's unerring word of God and that all scripture is inspired. Even though we might not quite be able to make sense of every passage, we view it and interpret it with the limitation of a human mind..... Gods ways are so much higher than we can fully understand....
It is fascinating to study scripture and to try to understand it.... the parts we can not fully understand we can take on faith..... I believe the entire bible is true and infallible.... If I error I will error on the side of having childlike faith in believing the bible exactly as its written.....
The basis of this is that I do not believe there is anything that limits God and His divine purpose. Good question.... It shows you have a sincere keen interest in the things of God.... Keep the faith and God Bless.
2006-12-01 23:41:19 · answer #4 · answered by AlanElaine 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It has only partially been fulfilled: Jesus was born in Bethlehem.
"that is to be ruler in Israel..." It hasn't happened yet. But He will rule over the whole world from His throne in Jerusalem according to Revelation 21.
2006-12-01 23:39:28 · answer #5 · answered by Just Sarah 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Even if one assumes your position, there's countless others (more than 100?) His coming DID fulfill.
Of course, since He took away Satan's powers, the case could be made that He already DOES rule over the world.
Also, when He managed to affect conversions, He could be considered a ruler over Israel.
2006-12-01 23:36:39 · answer #6 · answered by azar_and_bath 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Where does it say Jesus ruled over Israel. Your quote says Jesus is to be ruler in Israel.
2006-12-01 23:30:27 · answer #7 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was fulfilled. He was, in fact, the ruler of Israel. Keep in mind that the true kingdom, according to scripture, is not a physical kingdom on earth.
2006-12-01 23:34:39 · answer #8 · answered by Andrew M 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus will come back in glory as a lion of Judah (He came as Slain lamb of God) , He will rule over all the earth and fulfill other messianic prophecies
2006-12-01 23:31:03 · answer #9 · answered by John 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes Jesus fulfilled prophecy.
2006-12-01 23:29:02 · answer #10 · answered by timjim 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Israel was once considered God's nation, no? The Israelites were considered God's people. So Jesus did and still does rule over, in and among God's people.
2006-12-01 23:30:10 · answer #11 · answered by CHRISTINA 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋