Hypocrite?
2006-12-01 10:49:55 · 24 answers · asked by enslavementality 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
You're not paying attention to the question, I'm not implying they had sex, I'm saying he IMPREGNATED her, which would be the spiritual EQUIVALENT of humans having sex,since marriage and sex are supposed to be about raising children in a healthy environment, why was God such a deadbeat dad?
2006-12-01 10:59:18 · update #1
People are still thumbs-downing me like by aking this question I'm implying something "nasty" happened, I'm not. I'm simply concerned that God didn't do the right thing and pop the question, at least AFTER he impregnated Mary, so their child wouldn't be born out of wed-lock. I mean I'm not even Christian, much less the Judeo-christian God, but if I got a girl pregnant, accidentally or otherwise, I'd marry her, for me it's about supporting the mother of my child, and showing my respect for her. Why did God say we should do this when HE didn't even do it?
2006-12-01 11:22:37 · update #2
First, the teaching of the Immaculate Conception does not mean the birth of Jesus to the Virgin Mary. It is the doctrine that Mary was born in grace and without sin.
From the very moment of HER conception, the Blessed Virgin Mary was free from all stain of original sin. This simply means that from the beginning, she was in a state of grace, sharing in God's own life, and that she was free from the sinful inclinations which have beset human nature after the fall.
With regard to the birth of Jesus to the Virgin Mary: Jesus was conceived solely by the power of the Holy Spirit in the womb of the Virgin Mary... Jesus was conceived "by the Holy Spirit without human seed". The (early Christian) Fathers see in the virginal conception the sign that it truly was the Son of God who came in a humanity like our own.
Why does God tell us anything? There are many mysteries of God. Just because we do not understand, does not mean we should not obey. Did you always understand why your father or mother told you not to do something? But you obeyed them...I hope.
2006-12-01 11:26:04 · answer #1 · answered by Donald C 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, Mary has been known as the spouse of the Holy Spirit for generations. This is why she and Joseph did not have any children between them. Joseph was acting as the eunuchs in the book of Esther and he knew it. Also this is why it is so wrong for people to call the Holy Spirit "SHE" like the Holy Spirit has not already made known HIS gender. If they call the Holy Spirit SHE and they also say Mary is spouse of the Holy Spirit, what else is that but condoning gay marriage --- Blasphemy
2006-12-01 11:00:09 · answer #2 · answered by Midge 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God is not subject to Earthly rules. The Ten Commandments (note, it does not say "The Ten Suggestions") are for people to follow. (not God) The Earthly realm is not the same as the Heavenly one, which is why the Sadducees and Pharasees were confused by Jesus' answer about how one woman had 7 husbands in succession as they died, each of them married her, so who would be her husband in heaven? And Jesus answered that in Heaven, there is no marriage as we know it here on Earth.
2006-12-01 14:09:57 · answer #3 · answered by Shinigami 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Meatloaf"
Just kidding.
Seriously, you are not trying to get logic here are you? I mean, it would be nice if we could all look at the "flaws" and say, "well that's not right", but it's not going to happen.
I've read some of your answers, you are an interesting person, drop by my 360 if you like and leave a comment. And be prepared to have FUN!!
Peace my Pagan friend, Peace.
2006-12-01 14:18:10 · answer #4 · answered by -Tequila17 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No I don't believe he was married to Mary when he impregnated her. I am not really sure why he tells us we have to marry before we have sex and where this is said in the bible but I am guessing you are right he is just a hypocrite.
2006-12-01 10:52:58 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
no because it was a different category than natural sex...they did not 'know each other" in a sexual way.
In Luke Mary was not even aware she was pregnant until the angel told her
2006-12-01 10:53:59 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
FYI, the immaculate conception is about Mary herself, not the conception of Jesus. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Immaculate_conception
And I'm not even Roman Catholic.....
Answer to the question, God didn't have sex with Mary. Roman Catholics, Eastern Orthodox, and orthodox Protestants agree that she was a virgin when she conceived Christ. That would negate the idea of anyone having sex with her, wouldn't it? ; )
2006-12-01 10:58:15 · answer #7 · answered by tantiemeg 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
There is no indication that God had sexual intercourse with Mary. In fact, there no reason to think he did. If he created the heavens and the earth, he can probably manage a fertalized egg in the womb of a woman.
2006-12-01 10:52:44 · answer #8 · answered by Aspurtaime Dog Sneeze 6 · 3⤊ 2⤋
Are you trying to imply God had sex with Mary? Not true. Also if God can create Adam and Eve from scratch then why can't he create Jesus from scratch?
2006-12-01 10:52:41 · answer #9 · answered by A fan 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Most bible scholars agree that Mary was probably illegitimate in the usual way, hence the ludicrous story.
2006-12-01 10:58:40 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋