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2006-12-01 07:40:30 · 7 answers · asked by GAMEBREAKER 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Some scholarly readers have suggested that the Gospel according to St John is more profoundly under the influence of Greek ways of thining than th esuynoptic Gospels. One point at which this seems to be evident, is the way in which the evangelist employs the categories of lifht and darkness in telling the story of Jesus.

2006-12-01 07:49:26 · update #1

sorry the word esuynoptic is really synoptic.

2006-12-01 07:54:55 · update #2

This is an exegetical translation of the original Greek and Hebrew scriptures not a modern day retelling but rather its effect on the contemporary imagination.

2006-12-01 07:57:26 · update #3

7 answers

The prologue to the Gospel of John owes a lot to Philo of Alexandria, a Hellenized Jew of the 1st century BC. Greek thought was already a factor in the Old Testament, such as the Wisdom of Solomon or the books of Maccabes. Greek influence was more indirect on most of the later Scriptures.

The pre-Hellenistic Egyptians are also somewhat influential in the older books of the Old Testament.

Some Christians get nervous when this is pointed out, and some anti-Christians get all excited, but I can't figure out why. God used the Persian king Cyrus to return the Jews to Israel, it's hard to see why He can't use Greek thinkers to refine the thought of His people.

2006-12-01 10:05:10 · answer #1 · answered by Blaargh_42 2 · 1 1

Plenty. Of course. The Gospels were not written in a vacuum. John (and his disciples) were communicating to a world where Greek philosophy and the terminology were what was understood throughout the Mediterranean Basin.

The entire concept of The Logos is right out of Plato and Aristotle.

But what, exactly, is your question about it?

2006-12-01 07:44:28 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

No; influence on the modern day churches' INTERPRETATION of Johns Gospel account as well as the rest of Scripture.

2006-12-01 07:45:24 · answer #3 · answered by Abdijah 7 · 1 0

The Word of God can not be influenced by anything human. Only God can influence His own Word. The entire Bible says exactly what God intended it to say, John included. The Bible is the infallible, completely accurate, inerrant, undeniable, Holy Spirit inspired Word of God

2006-12-01 07:46:28 · answer #4 · answered by utuseclocal483 5 · 1 1

Yes.

2006-12-01 07:42:49 · answer #5 · answered by Boilerfan 5 · 0 0

shure

2006-12-01 07:42:23 · answer #6 · answered by george p 7 · 0 0

You need to elaborate....

2006-12-01 07:45:26 · answer #7 · answered by teeney1116 5 · 1 0

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