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specific rules reguarding sex in the Bible, they are in Leviticous in the 20th and 21st chapters. I have never read in the Bible where it says that you have to be married to have sex. In fact I've read a lot about men having concubines. Do you know what the rules say reguarding sex in the Bible? I mean let's face it, it's kind of hard to be fruitful and multiply without it.

2006-11-23 15:33:37 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

19 answers

I have to agree, but I want to see the answers come in. It is clearly against homosexuality, and Paul spoke many times about sexual "immorality" (a bit vague to me)

But I never did find the sex before marriage part. And I have read it a great deal.

Blessings,
David


EDIT:
Hmmm alot of people saying it is wrong, but no one has a quote. The lady underneath me is just vague stuff. Bible is not meant to confuse, if its wrong it will say it.

2006-11-23 15:37:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The miracle of forgiveness explains that GOD created sex. The bible does say that fornication and sexually immorality be abstained from. And it comes close to saying that a bishop MUST be Married. But, also says that GOD ordained marriage.
As for plural wives, that whole topic is debateable beyond true reasoning. However, the mormons teach plural marriage as an institution of righteousness in doctrine and covenants section 132.
it also defines that a virgin who marries a man belongs to that man. So it cannot be adultery because in the first place she belongs to no other.
However again jesus says that LUSTing after another is the same as adultery. Anyone who has masterbated is guilty of this lower degree of adultery.
ok, in the study of jewish traditions, there is something called sequential polygony where a woman can repeated male husbands but, only one at a time. it differentiates that if a man returns to a woman after she sleeps with a second man, than that first man is Unclean.
There are also abstianence proclamations against having sex with family and close relatives and Inlaws.
So, in particular, there are many rules against sex outside of marriage.
of course there are different degrees of the definition of fornication starting with webster gives you the Old english definition where sex without marriage is unlawful. It can also be defined as adulter too. But sodom and gomorah added the SexMagics and drug rape to the definition of illegal fornication and made it APPEAR as works of righteousnes. They Lied! because they were under the influence of fallen angels and false gods.

2006-11-23 15:44:51 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Leviticus doesn't only apply to the Levites, it applies to everyone. It's clear that God intends sex to be within marriage between a man and a woman. Concubines were used to produce children in the event that the wife was incapable of having them herself. In reality, I think they grew to be an outlet for lust, it talks about using concubines, but never condones it.

If you mean that it'd be hard to produce many children following God's laws, you're wrong, at that time there were many ppl alive so finding a spouse who you weren't closely related to wouldn't be very difficult. The primary purpose of sex is to produce children, God simply gave rules about it to protect the Israelites and set them apart from other nations.

2006-11-23 15:41:26 · answer #3 · answered by STEPHEN J 4 · 0 1

you are right to a degree. i don't think there is anything wrong with multiple wives or husbands as long as they are loyal to them. the word marriage means to come together into one. the ceremony is only the outward symbol of what will happen later on the wedding night. when you have sex with someone they become one with you and that is why it is a sin against yourself to have partners outside the marriage becaused when you break up it feels like tearing inside you and it is. it is one becoming two again

didn't Jesus say that in the begining there was one man meant for one women but it was because the hardness of our hearts that devorce was allowed.

2006-11-23 15:39:41 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Leviticus applies only to the Levites, so don't worry about those rules.

Leviticus was called "The Holiness Code," because it listed out punishments and spells out requirements for Israel to remain "Holy." Israel was God's "Chosen People." God had a covenant with them. It required Israel not to take part in religious practices of the Canaanites. They had to remain separate from the Gentiles, to be like their God and not like other people. They were to be "Holy"–set apart, different, chosen people of God, God-like. So a main concern of "The Holiness Code," was to keep Israel different from the Gentiles.

In the New Testament the Apostle Paul, reflecting an ascetic dualism of body and spirit found in Greco-Roman philosophy, associates flesh (Greek sarkos) with animalistic urges or sinfulness. "To be carnally minded is death," says Paul, whereas "to be spiritually minded is life and peace" (Rom. 7:14; 8:6). Topping Paul's list of manifest "works of the flesh" are adultery and fornication (Gal. 5:19). "If ye live after the flesh, ye shall die," Paul writes to the Romans (8:13), "but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live." Thus Paul tells them to "make not provision for the flesh, to fulfill the lusts thereof" (13:14). Similarly the First Letter of Peter urges the faithful to "abstain from fleshly lusts, which war against the soul" (1 Pet. 2:11), and the Second Letter condemns false teachers, who as "natural brute beasts," with "eyes full of adultery," allure "unstable souls" by "the lusts of the flesh, through much wantonness" (2 Pet. 2.12-18).

2006-11-23 15:37:44 · answer #5 · answered by Justsyd 7 · 0 1

In Bible days you never touched a woman unless you were married to her. If you don't believe me just look at what Dinah's brothers did to the guy who forced her, even though he loved her.
I Cr 13;8a, Love never fails!!!!!

Genesis 34:26 And they slew Hamor and Shechem his son with the edge of the sword, and took Dinah out of Shechem's house, and went out.

2006-11-23 15:45:00 · answer #6 · answered by ? 7 · 0 0

the Bible says that fornication (sex out of marriage) is a sin.
Therefor you have to be married to have sex and not sin.
Try reading song of Solomon. That is only for married couples

2006-11-23 15:54:30 · answer #7 · answered by jojo9 3 · 0 1

OK, rules about sex in the bible

2006-11-23 15:42:53 · answer #8 · answered by Black Dragon 5 · 0 0

Antiquity may serve to some extent but it would be entirely remiss to ignore modern medical science on the subject .

2006-11-23 15:37:49 · answer #9 · answered by dogpatch USA 7 · 0 0

...God's plan for procreation never approved of adultery and fornication.
...Hebrews 13:4 says this: "Marriage is to be held in honor among all, and the marriage bed is to be undefiled; for fornicators and adulterers God will judge."
...Another version renders it this way:
...4 Let marriage be held in honor (esteemed worthy, precious, of great price, and especially dear) in all things. And thus let the marriage bed be undefiled (kept undishonored); for God will judge and punish the unchaste [all guilty of sexual vice] and adulterous.
...I wouldn't mess with God if I were you.

2006-11-23 17:16:42 · answer #10 · answered by carson123 6 · 0 0

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