Son of man?

Question

Christians say that this term comes from the book of Daniel, which Jesus quoted often. But In my Bible that term is not to be found in the book of Daniel!

The only book, outside the new testament, is the book of Enoch that contains this term quite often. Again why are the church and the Jews afraid of this book?This book was once part of the Jewish scriptures and of the christian canon.

Answer 1

Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. What does this mean? I thought Jesus was the Son of God. Jesus used the phrase "Son of Man" of Himself as a reference to the prophecy of Daniel 7:13-14, "I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought Him near before Him. And there was given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve Him: His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed." The description "Son of Man" was a Messianic title. Jesus is the one who was given dominion and glory and a kingdom. When Jesus used this phrase related to Himself, He was assigning the prophecy to Himself. The Jews of that era would have been intimately familiar with the phrase and to whom it referred. He was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah.



A second meaning of the phrase "Son of Man" is that Jesus was truly a human being. God called the prophet Ezekiel "son of man" 93 times. God was simply calling Ezekiel a human being. A son of a man is a man. Jesus was fully God (John 1:1,14), but He was also a human being. 1 John 4:2 tells us, "This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God." So, in summary, the phrase "Son of Man" indicates that Jesus is the Messiah, and that He is truly a human being.

From http://gotquestions.org

Answer 2

It is also that Jesus was to be a PERFECT replacement for Adam.
Adam a perfect man lost Perfection for all mankind and he lost Everlasting Life for mankind.
Only a perfect man could buy back, be a perfect sacrifice for all mankind to pay a ransom for us all.
That is his role as the son of man.
He returned to his rightful place in heaven after his role, task was completed.
He did not have any further use for a human body.

Answer 3

Jesus is called both the Son of God and the Son of man in scripture. This refers to his dual nature. He was all of God contained in human form. Since sin came into the world through the actions of a man (Adam), so the redemption had to come through the actions of a another man. But because of sin, no man could live the perfect live needed to redeem mankind. So God himself took on human form and was obedient even to death on the cross (See Philippians 2:5-11 as one of several places this is explained).

So there were things Jesus did because He was the Son of God, and other things that he did because he was a human being (Son of man). So he is referred to as both in the scriptures.

Answer 4

I did a quick search in the NKJV and found the term "son of man" used 107 times in the OT.

Answer 5

who knows?if you were given FULL access to the Vatican archives you could bring the church to it's knees in one night

Answer 6

Jesus often said He was the Son. The son., for a reason.

Jesus is the Son..son

God's son=flesh (man)
God's Son=Deity (God)
Mary's son=flesh (man)
son of God=flesh (man)
son of man=flesh (man)
Son of man=Deity.(God)

Jesus is the Son of man..meaning..He is the DEITY of man.

Jesus being son of man..means He is Mary's son (flesh)

Jesus is both flesh and Deity. It is part of the Trinity.

A easy rule to remember is: Anytime it uses a capital(S) it means Deity.
When it uses a small case (s) it means flesh(man).
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