how is this possible?
2006-10-30 23:07:42 · 7 answers · asked by shahealing 1 in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ STDs
He may have been wise enough to wear a condom during sex.
2006-10-30 23:17:19 · answer #1 · answered by JOHN M 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Or...maybe he is infected, but has yet to seroconvert*, so is still testing HIV negative. It is entirely possible to be infected with a virus and test negative - though eventually you will probably test positive.
*(seroconversion is the term for the point of infection where anitbody production reaches detectable levels. Before that, you have the virus in you, but in only small amounts, and your immune system isn't geared up to fight it yet. When testing for HIV infection, usually the test doesn't measure the virus itself, but the quantity of anti-HIV antibodies that your immune system is producing)
2006-10-31 10:00:40 · answer #2 · answered by CSlave 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
the membrane of the male penis was not breached. Most time men are infected are when they have a cut or sore. Microscopic or have anal/needle sticks. She probably didn't bleed as well. HE WAS VERY LUCKY!
2006-10-31 11:59:50 · answer #3 · answered by Karrien Sim Peters 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
he may be in a window period.let him do the PCR confirmation test.its better he be cautious.he might have used condoms in a right way.
2006-10-31 10:08:42 · answer #4 · answered by melchieram 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
maybe he use a condom or she slept with someone else
2006-10-31 09:20:13 · answer #5 · answered by stacey r 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
maybe he used a condom
2006-10-31 07:59:26 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it didnt transfer to him i guess?
2006-10-31 07:12:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋