usually they are given lessons by a missionary, preacher, priest or other religsious clergy type person. their knkowledge of the language and even the understanding of the scriptures os way too foreign for them. they are taught verbally and in a manner befitting their understanding - just like was done here and back int he days before guttenburg and his printing press.
2006-10-25 15:43:53
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answer #1
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answered by Marysia 7
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Of course some say that "the King James Version is the exclusive, infallible word of God" But what about the English-speaking people before A.D. 1611?? What about the variety of translations in the English language before the year 1611? What about all the very good translations since 1611?
The point, though, is that all translations may be very good, and most are doctrinally sound; however, only the ORIGINAL MSS are "exclusive, infallible". Well-done translations by reputable groups of multi-denominational translators are very reliable (unless, of course you take a text out of context and use it as a pretext).
What do missionaries give to converts in China? Chinese translations. What do they give to the Auca in S. America? The Quecha translation. Etc., etc.
2006-10-25 22:51:54
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answer #2
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answered by kent chatham 5
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KJV is a translation.
http://bible.crosswalk.com/ has a drop-down with many good translations.
Any errors are usually well documented, and usually not significant enough to worry about for the average Bible student.
Otherwise, in order to get the original, you will have to learn Aramaic, Greek and Hebrew.
http://www.biblegateway.com/versions/ has some versions suitable for those who speak and read Chinese, and if you have Chinese characters on your computer.
See also, "The King James Only Controversy: Can You Trust the Modern Translations?" by James R. White is available at Amazon.
Wikipedia
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aramaic_of_Jesus
"Most scholars believe that Jesus probably primarily spoke Aramaic with some Hebrew and at least a limited grasp of Greek. Generally, scholars believe that the towns of Nazareth and Capernaum where Jesus lived were Aramaic-speaking communities, that he was knowledgeable enough in Hebrew to discuss the Hebrew Bible, and that he might have known some Greek through commerce as a carpenter in nearby Sepphoris. Accordingly, Jesus is believed to have addressed primarily Aramaic-speaking audiences."
2006-10-25 22:57:54
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answer #3
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answered by Jimmy Dean 3
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I'm a Baptist, and I don't believe that the King James is the infallible word of God. I believe that His message is expressed in this version, as well as it is in other versions. I do think that the KJV is a more accurate version than others. But remember, the Bible is originally a work done in the ancient languages, that is Attic Greek (New Testament), Hebrew, and Aramaic. These versions penned in the ancient languages should be considered to be the closest to being the infallible word of God. So, translations in modern languages can express the message as well as it needs to be expressed, but to read the word of God how it was originally must be done in these ancient languages.
2006-10-25 22:46:27
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answer #4
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answered by coolguy 2
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No, the KJV is NOT exclusive. It is a good translation but there are many indeed. Its a translation and that is all there is to it, there are many and many are good and some are not so good. Its a matter of your language as to which will be best for you. I like the NIV but it to is just a translation of the original. I do not speak hebrew,greek or aramaic so I like the NIV. The KJV is not the langauge I speak in or think in, so why would I like it? I like the NIV because it works for a dum old guy who has enough trouble with the language I speak, I don't need to add to the challenge.
2006-10-25 22:50:08
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answer #5
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answered by ? 3
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There are many different versions of the bible. Most however relay the same message. For example the Kings James version may read something like "A thoust may be happy in all." And the New Worlds Translation may read the same this like "And you will be happy in all." That's the main difference in bibles. Slight wording to make something easier to understand. SOME may change the meanging of a verse, but the most apply to what I just said. Check for yourself. Get a few bibles and look up the same verse.
2006-10-25 22:43:16
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answer #6
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answered by mrmanseven 3
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The King James version is a direct translation of the original text. If you were to give it to converts in China you would have the text converted to Chinese. I'm not sure what your point is.
May GOD richly bless you.
2006-10-25 22:42:47
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answer #7
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answered by Bye Bye 6
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The Bible has been translated into hundreds of languages Of which the King James is only one of. And a poor one at that. There are several translations that those in china have access too.
2006-10-25 22:48:52
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answer #8
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answered by ? 2
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To think that the King James version is the infallible word of God is to misunderstand the origins of Christianity. Jehovah can't even be said or written in Hebrew, so why would faithfuls ever change the name of the god they originally called YHWH, or Yahweh?
2006-10-25 22:45:18
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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The King James version was adapted and interpreted in a patriarchal manner by males who used their viewpoints to slant the view. Entire gospels such as the Gospel of Mary and other gnostic texts were ommited. There are many version of the word of God in many different cultures. World religions are based on the socioeconomic, and geographical conditions that contribute to a better way of living.
2006-10-25 22:43:53
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answer #10
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answered by Deirdre O 7
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