checked for genetic problems, when they have puppies do the puppies also have to be tested? Or are they absolutly guaranteed to be genetically free of health problems because their parent had the tests?
2006-10-25 05:10:57 · 8 answers · asked by thelogicalferret 5 in Pets ➔ Dogs
Jaxchick- shame on you for assuming so much about someone you don't know. I am not breeding anything, I have one dog who is neutered, obviously nothing can come of that, and I have no intentions of breeding anything in the near future. Some people do just have the curious question from time to time.
2006-10-25 05:26:29 · update #1
That depends, are the parents related or not? If the parents aren't related, then I would think that it wouldn't be as important to test the puppies; however, if the parents are related, then, yes, the puppies would definately need to be tested as something could have mutated onto the genes of the puppies that wasn't visible on the parents!
2006-10-25 06:23:04 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on what you are testing for, how effective the test is and whether there could be multiple causes for the problem.
For example, there is a new DNA test for Basset Hound Thrombopathia (a bleeding disorder). The DNA test will tell you without doubt if a dog is affected, clear, or a carrier. If you breed two clear dogs together, the pups will automatically be clear and you don't have to test them. But if you breed a clear to a carrier then each pup has a 50% chance of being a carrier and so the pups need to be tested.
On the other hand, hip dysplasia is caused by multiple genes, and can also be affected by environment and care of the dog in question. So even if you breed two dogs with excellent hips you can still get dysplastic pups, it's just that your chances of good hips are better than if you breed dogs with poor hips.
2006-10-25 12:45:19 · answer #2 · answered by DaBasset - BYBs kill dogs 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You didn't specify what tests you are checking for. If the tests were for a condition that is inherited by the usual Mendelian format, (see below) the offspring will be genetically free of the disease If and only if the test revealed BOTH genes for the disase in both parents. If both parents are carriers, but do not have the disease, then the following applies: Let us say that the capital letter is dominant, the small letter recessive for the disease.
Each parent had:
Dd Dd
The offsprings four combinations are:
DD Dd dD and dd
The first has no disease, and is not a carrier.
The second has no disease, but it a carrier
Same for the third
The fourth has the disease.
Only if both parents are DD DD
will you have no disease, outside of the occasional spontaneous mutation.
2006-10-25 12:37:33 · answer #3 · answered by April 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You should already know the answer to this question if you are planning on breeding these animals.
I highly doubt it's "hypothetical", you just don't want to get ripped a new one.
I don't breed animals because I don't have the knowledge/desire to do it, but I would imagine that you cannot guarantee anything.
Just the same as people who get genetic testing done and see that all is well, but still sometimes end up with a baby who has some sort of birth defect.
2006-10-25 12:18:35 · answer #4 · answered by jaxchick23 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
You can advertise the parents has having no genetic problems and show proof of their testing BUT the pups (like any other dog) are not guaranteed.
The pups should be tested prior to 36 months (CERF, etc) and definitely tested prior to them being used for breeding purposes.
2006-10-25 12:19:18 · answer #5 · answered by kaosullivan1973 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There ARE some tests that a definitive to detect the animals that are unaffected carriers and those don't need to test the next generation. But MOST tests: OFA, CERF can or will miss carriers who don't show the problem but can pass it to the next generation.... (IE like a black lab can have yellow offspring)
2006-10-25 12:38:06 · answer #6 · answered by ragapple 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Just because a parent doesn't exhibit a particular problem doesn't mean they don't carry a recessive gene for it. You can be much more sure of a problem not being carried as a recessive if the grandparents were tested clear as well
2006-10-25 12:25:03 · answer #7 · answered by whpptwmn 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think you'd still have to check the child generation. There may be recessive genes that weren't obvious on the parent generation tests.
2006-10-25 12:14:36 · answer #8 · answered by bequalming 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋