A women was raped by her father in law and according to the muslim law her husband is now her son so her marriage has been declared void?
How can any one on todays earth get so wierd? Can any follower of Islam explain this situation?
2006-10-25
02:07:09
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8 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Serah- it was not consentual sex- it was a rape!
2006-10-25
02:12:58 ·
update #1
Jazil - I never knew about this ancient story but what i am talking about is a real life story which happened a few months back in Asia, i think India. This has been reported in media and sounds really really weird
2006-10-25
02:23:56 ·
update #2
if she did not do anything with the son, and married to the father. then it's different. i am not sure about the rule for this.
but how come you ignore all the other things such as worship one God, give charity, kindness toward parents, women, orphans, needy, hungry. help those who are in need. be merciful, forgiviness...etc and focus on this one?
2006-10-25 02:14:10
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Thank for this Q, but you can put it in a more pleasant way of some body who wants to know.
I'll answer your question as follow:
1) This girl you are talking about is the mother of all Muslims and the only virgin wife of prophet MOHAMMAD PB UH.
2) She was engaged to somebody else other than the prophet PB UH prior to the progression of Islam, and the non-Muslim guy who was engaged to her didn't want to marry her because she is Muslim.
3) It was well known and acceptable to the people at that time of such marriage.
4) No body of the NON Muslim population has condemned this action or otherwise it will be a Major defect in the prophet's history and they would attack him in poems which was the CNN / Aljazeera media at that time!!!!
5) I have been told by a friend that such an action was to a recent time present in India and Europe.
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Dear A. Dogma
Sorry for miss understanding your Q.
But what you have mentioned is rape and she can't be his wife and marriage is not broken by rape unless the husband want so.
2006-10-25 02:20:29
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answer #2
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answered by zajil 2
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How can is this any different from past Christian indoctrinations?
There was a time that if a woman was raped, she was damaged goods and if the man who raped her wouldn't marry her, no one would.
Rape was also the woman's fault for luring a man while her wiles.
Also, if you oculdn't get a big enough dowery together to marry off your daughter, if was common practice to sell her into slavery.
2006-10-25 02:12:46
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answer #3
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answered by xlady_elyriax 2
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No no Muslim can explain this to you on here because countries with those laws dont have electricity and internet
2006-10-25 02:09:20
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answer #4
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answered by Obilee 4
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I am not muslim but if she had sex with her husbands father that makes her his wife. do you understand presumming she had not yet had relations with her husband that is now canceled and she is married to his father. better than being stoned to death for invadelity I supose.
2006-10-25 02:10:58
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answer #5
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answered by Sam's 6
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You will not get a good awns er to this question,but you will get answers saying Cristian's and Jews do it etc,as though this makes it OK.good question.
2006-10-25 02:13:21
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answer #6
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answered by smiler 4
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The same as this: Jesus is the son of mary but Jesus is also god, god is the father of all things, therefore Jesus is the father of Mary.
2006-10-25 02:45:44
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answer #7
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answered by dream reality 2
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you said that she was raped (not married ) so her husband is not her son (do you know meaning of son?) :):):)
2006-10-25 02:12:42
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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