Job 1:6: Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them.
2006-09-25 08:21:04 · 25 answers · asked by Left the building 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The context of the story is that Satan appears to have been wandering around with his buddies, not much to do. And, they returned home to visit with their dad (God) and discuss future entertainment.
At which time, Dad (God) and Satan (Son) speculated about Job's faithfulness. They made a bet with each other and Satan proceeded to kill everything Job loved and tortured him for a period of time.
When he didn't break under pressure, God made it all better (no word on how dead relatives felt about being replaced, but God works in mysterious ways).
2006-09-25 08:29:51 · update #1
So, when Jesus claimed to be God's "son" it really didn't mean anything?
Obvously, Jesus was not the ONLY "son of God."
2006-09-25 08:40:00 · update #2
To Billcompugeek:
Job is part of the King James Version of the Bible and is considered scripture.
2006-09-25 08:42:12 · update #3
Your going to give them a headache.
2006-09-25 08:25:13 · answer #1 · answered by eva b 5 · 1⤊ 7⤋
Job is not scripture.
FAQ: What books are in the Word and what are apocrypha?
"The books of the Word are all those which have the internal sense; but those books which have not the internal sense, are not the Word. The books of the Word, in the Old Testament, are the five Books of Moses, the Book of Joshua, the Book of Judges, the two Books of Samuel, the two Books of Kings, the Psalms of David, the Prophets Isaiah, Jeremiah, Lamentations, Ezekiel, Daniel, Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, Malachi: and in the New Testament, the four Evangelists, Matthew, Mark, Luke, John; and the Apocalypse. The rest have not the internal sense" (Arcana Coelestia n. 10325 or Heavenly Doctrine n. 266).
FAQ: Why different testaments and books in the Word?
"As regards the Word particularly, it has existed in every age, though not the Word we possess at the present day. Another Word existed in the Most Ancient Church before the Flood, and yet another Word in the Ancient Church after the Flood. Then came the Word written through Moses and the Prophets in the Jewish Church, and finally the Word written through the Evangelists in the new Church. The reason why the Word has existed in every age is that by means of the Word there is a communication between heaven and earth, and also that the Word deals with goodness and truth, by which a person is enabled to live in eternal happiness. In the internal sense therefore the Lord alone is the subject, for all goodness and truth are derived from Him" (Arcana Coelestia n. 2895).
2006-09-25 15:37:13 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
The sons mentioned in this verse are angels. Jesus The Son of God, is the second person of the Trinity, and the creator of these angels (John 1:3)
nice try
2006-09-25 17:55:29 · answer #3 · answered by Not perfect, just forgiven 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
From the book of Job, the context clearly indicates that "sons of God" are angelic beings, since they enter directly into God's presence or existed before the creation of the earth. In the New Testament "sons of God" always refer to redeemed human beings.
2006-09-25 15:41:47 · answer #4 · answered by NickofTyme 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
All the other sons of God are adopted.
[Rom 8:15] For you did not receive a spirit of slavery to fall back into fear, but you received a spirit of adoption, through which we cry, "Abba, Father!"
Gods other sons referred to in Job:
Job 1:6] One day, when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, Satan also came among them.
Footnote:
[1] Sons of God: angels. Satan: literally, "adversary."
2006-09-25 15:33:05 · answer #5 · answered by Robert L 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
When you purchase items to assemble do you go to instruction 8 before the first seven?
I'll bet you wonder how many were walking around previous to Adam right?
I hope you are not a process engineer.
Read more than one verse AND comprehend.
Standard answer after this. You know.
2006-09-25 15:33:52 · answer #6 · answered by dyke_in_heat 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
You have to look at context and connotation. First, read the passage as part of the entire chapter and then remember that it is a literary piece. In this case, the "sons" of God refer to the angels. Remember that this was written is a pre-Christian context that viewed God with a different set of rules.
Also, please, what translation are you quoting?
2006-09-25 15:26:11 · answer #7 · answered by Church Music Girl 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
The catch is the "begotten" part. Those other guys he just magically poofed into his presence, I guess. With Jesus, he had to rape a human. Hence, begotten=came out a baby shoot.
2006-09-25 15:40:28 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
It means that the people who love Him and know that He is Lord. Its liekw hen someone says men or women of God. We all are sons and daughters of God. It doesn't mean literally like Jesus as His son.
2006-09-25 15:27:55 · answer #9 · answered by Mia 3 · 2⤊ 2⤋
They are Angels, created beings. Jesus is not a created being, but as part of God He is the creator.
2006-09-25 15:35:33 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Christ -- only begotten son, fathered by God through a human woman
Everyone else -- created sons and daughters, made by God
No confusion
2006-09-25 15:27:07 · answer #11 · answered by Gestalt 6 · 3⤊ 1⤋