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2006-09-25 07:46:27 · 36 answers · asked by James H 1 in Science & Mathematics Medicine

36 answers

1.92

2006-09-25 07:48:52 · answer #1 · answered by god0fgod 5 · 0 0

2

2006-09-25 08:02:27 · answer #2 · answered by Sharon S 2 · 0 0

48 divided by 25 is 1.92 if I've done the maths right. Then multiplying by one gives you the same number = 1.92.

2006-09-25 07:49:34 · answer #3 · answered by mancunian_nick 4 · 0 0

(48/25)*1 =

48/25 =

now all you have to do is divide 48 by 25

2006-09-25 07:49:12 · answer #4 · answered by WhoKnows?1995 4 · 0 0

1 23/25

2006-09-25 07:47:33 · answer #5 · answered by RoadKill 3 · 0 0

48/25*1=48/25

2006-09-25 07:48:56 · answer #6 · answered by openpsychy 6 · 0 0

inverse of 25/48*1

2006-09-25 07:51:55 · answer #7 · answered by rah 2 · 0 0

Oh brother!
And everyone (25 +), within 3 seconds of each other, came up with the correct answer of 1.92.
Aren't you all soooo proud?
Unbelievable.

2006-09-25 07:57:07 · answer #8 · answered by GeneL 7 · 0 0

multiplied by 1 lol

2006-09-25 08:01:46 · answer #9 · answered by ? 1 · 0 0

bring a calculator & do it
48/25
any number multiplied by 1 is = number
2X1=2
100000X1=100000

2006-09-25 08:34:20 · answer #10 · answered by P.Y.T. 3 · 0 0

1.92. Hope I helped. Have a great day.

2006-09-25 07:48:06 · answer #11 · answered by lil_miss_gothicrage 1 · 0 0

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