Hello!! :o) I'm a Christian who is also gay. But because of my faith - I have been celibate for almost a decade now. [Because I'm not sure what God thinks of me being gay] And even before then I had very little sexual contact with anyone. [I'm just not a very 'sexual' guy!!] But I've always wondered what God meant by 'homosexuals'. In Leviticus 18:22 we are told, "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is an abomination." What do YOU think that means? [And please be painfully specific] And how physically affectionate can a man BE with another man before it becomes an 'abomination'? [In YOUR opinion - as a Christian] Thanks. Have a great day!! Craig!! :o)
2006-09-25 00:38:01 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
In my opinion as a christian, I believe that it means that men should not have sexual relations with a man and also women should not have sexual relations with a woman. That is what I truly believe.
2006-09-25 01:07:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
I am gay too and when I was a teenager I really debated this issue with myself the best thing that I can say you should do is go out there and read the materials avaibable about what the bible says about homosexuality in its litteral translation. Many people will agrue that the bible means what it says and says what it means, but I have read some very convincing arguments that say otherwise from credible people . And all I can say is one that the version of the bible that most people read is poorly translated and two that the laws found in the old testmament look more like a sanitary code for trying to avoid disease then a moral dictation on the part of God. I also believe that if there is debate then its because some part of you knows that God made you gay for a good reason, to learn to love yourself on a level that most people don't and to learn to love in a unquie way and is no better or worse than any other just different.
2006-09-25 07:46:34 · answer #2 · answered by brian_richard20 2 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Im not a "christian" by the worlds standards, but I do believe in God and Jesus Christ. Honestly I have faith in the word of God and do accept many of the teachings and good priniciples it holds with in its pages. But there has always been a nagging feeling that maybe some of the men that wrote the bible and were inspired by God might have misinterpreted the message. I will tell you why based on bible teachings. It is a FACT that Homosexuals do not choose to be Gay, they are born this way. You are born attracted to other boys/men. This is not always a result of child molestation nor is it a learned behavior. Now God made us in his image. he loves all his children equally. He doesnt deny them love or salvation. We are made this way. It would be safe to think we are Gods creations and have no mistakes, even though we are imperfect human beings. I have to believe that god want all his children to be happy. Sodom and Gamorah was destroyed for not Homosexuality but Beastiality and child molestation. Remember these men didnt want to have willing sex with the (Angels) men who entered Lots home, they wanted to rape them. his is ignored and never taken into account. As far as why it was recorded in the bible. Now How many men and women today have huge spiritual epiphanies? They feel they are inspired by God and could very well be, but how many of those "God inspired" messages are tainted with imperfect human issues and opinions. They way they recieved the message and how they interpreted the message to the masses are totally different. I think this could of happened in the days when the bible was written also. You notice in almost every other culture any where in the world homosexuality was never an issue. In fact homosexual men were revered!
2006-09-25 08:54:08 · answer #3 · answered by david s 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It means not to have sexual relations with another guy. Look all through the Bible. When a man went in unto a woman and lay with her - then a child was born-do you think they just sat there and talked about it?
And there is way more than just the passage in Leviticus.
Levititus 18:22 says 'as you would lie with a woman' (I think you KNOW what that means, you are just trying to find an excuse to do as you please)
Also look at Levitcus 20:13; 1 Chorinthians 6:9-10; Romans 1:26-28
God made Adam and Eve, NOT Adam and Steve
2006-09-25 08:10:07 · answer #4 · answered by helpme1 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It's unclear and could mean any number of things...that for instance a priest lying with womankind is an abomination to be avoided and so too lying with men would similarly be an abomination...mutual sexual solace between two men or two priests would be just as sinful as if they were each to sleep with a woman. I think it then applied only to the priesthood.
Jesus said nothing about homosexuality and this is Christianity according to anti-all-sex Paul.
Here are some people working toward an inclusive church who say you can too be gay and a Christian, (though I am not a deist myself) section titled "But the Bible..." is worth reading.
http://www.lgcm.org.uk/
2006-09-25 07:50:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
I am NOT a christian. However I think that is left up to each person who believes in the bible to make their own conclusion about what it means exactly.
I know the bible says not to have sexual relations with an animal. and several other relatives. Yet it list a man is not to lie with man as a man lies with a women. Instead of a man shall not have sexual relations with a man. Nor does it say a women shall not have sexual relations with a women.
Plus when two men have sex they are not lie with a man in the same way the lie with a women.
To comment on what the "The Question Man" posted in his answer...The bible say it's a sin for a man to lie with a man as he lie with a women. Key word "Sin" in your religion sins are forgiven. Therefor someone can be gay and still be a Christian. Lots of Christians sin daily and are still Christians cause in their religion their sins are forgiven.
2006-09-25 07:53:35 · answer #6 · answered by larrys_babygurl_4life 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well, to not put to fine a point on it, the New testament quotes Jesus as saying, "verily I say unto thee, if you have improper thoughts about another I say you have already committed the sin in your heart." I am sorry if that sounds harsh but it is what it is. I think that God is a compassionate God thou and I believe he knows you struggle and he knows the truth of your heart. So in essence, it will be between you and God to hash out the situation. I do not believe he would condemn you though if he knows you truly are a believer and he sees you struggling, he is not a mean God.
2006-09-25 08:29:40 · answer #7 · answered by mortgagegirl101 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
it means...
do unto others as you would have them do unto you
don't do to others that which you find yourself to be harmful
I think Paul added hatred to Jesus message...Jesus was Jewish and Paul taught new belief we came to know as Christianity...that's why Peter is supposed to be 1st Pope, he listened to Paul and his David Koresh rants
a careful study of Act 15 and 22 show however what became of Paul and his new invented religion
it's interesting to note all Bibles printed befor 1976 do not say the word Homosexual, it was inserted by more men as a political weapon
Jesus teachings were all inclusive, just love your neighbor as yourself and God....all the rest is commentary
“In 1978 Mollenkott co-authored (with Letha Scanzoni) the book entitled Is the Homosexual My Neighbor?, in which she called for nondiscrimination toward homosexuality. The book argues that the Sodom account in Genesis does not teach the evil of homosexuality, but the evils of violent gang rape and inhospitality to strangers. The book also claims that ‘the idea of a life long homosexual orientation or 'condition' is never mentioned in the Bible’ (p. 71), and that Romans 1 does not ‘fit the case of a sincere homosexual Christian’ (p. 62).
Rape My Daughter! (homosexuality? faagetabout it...)
"Behold, here is my daughter a maiden, and his concubine; them I will bring out now, and humble ye them, and do with them what seemeth good unto you: but unto this man do not so vile a thing. But the men would not hearken to him: so the man took his concubine, and brought her forth unto them; and they knew her, and abused her all the night until the morning: and when the day began to spring, they let her go." (Judges 19:24-25)
Judges 19 describe a father who offers his virgin daughter to a drunken mob. When the father says "unto this man do not so vile a thing," he makes clear that sexual abuse should never befall a man (meaning him), yet a woman, even his own flesh and blood, or a concubine belonging to a perfect stranger, can receive punishment from men to do what they wish. This attitude against women still persists to this day and we have the Bible, in large part, to thank for this attitude against women.
Verse 25 describes the hours long gang rape of the poor concubine. The Bible gives not one hint of passion or concern for the raped girl. Considering that many people believe that every word in the Bible comes from God, it should not surprise anyone why people still use these verses to justify such atrocities.
2006-09-25 07:56:39 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Since the word "homosexual" didn't even exist until the 1800's, it's unlikely much was said about it. Modern bible that use the word are obviously skewed in a socio-political fashion.
Read ALL of the 600+ Levitican proscriptions and see how many christians actually strive to follow. I think you'll find it's a very low number. They do tend to rant only against those proscriptions that don't affect themselves.
As for Paul, he thought celibacy was best for EVERYONE. Unless you worship Paul instead of Jesus, you can probably ignore him as well, just like most heterosexuals do.
2006-09-25 07:44:11 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
The New World Translation reads at Lev.18:22 this way -"And you must not lie down with a male the same as you lie down with a woman.It is a detestable thing".
According to the Bible book of Genesis,God himself created the differences between males and females.The record states "God proceeded to create the man in his image......Male and female he created them.Further God blessed them and God said to them:'Be fruitful and become many and fill the earth and subdue it'(Gen1:27,28).
God created humans with free will and provided opportunities for them to enjoy their freedom.(Ps.115:16).However,when it came to issues of sexuality,God gave specific guidelines.-Gen.2:24.
Because of Adam's disobedience,we have all inherited imperfection.We must therefore battle fleshly weaknesses and strong desires that are out of harmony with God's original purpose.Thus,in the laws given through Moses,God specified sexual practices that were abhorrent to him - namely,adultery,incest,homosexuality,and bestiality(Lev.18:6-23).God also specifically forbade portraying oneself as a member of the opposite sex for immoral purposes.(Deut.22:5).
The Bible consistently teaches that the only sexual relations approved by God are with a member of the opposite sex within the marriage arrangement.
(Gen.20:1-5,14,39:7-9;
Pro.5:15-19;Heb.13:4)
2006-09-25 08:50:11 · answer #10 · answered by lillie 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋