2006-09-11 08:12:37 · 5 answers · asked by jccrump 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Other - Education
That depends on the zoning in your State and County. Some go just by a lot size, some 1 acre, still some are 5 acres. I don't believe in any of the States, it would be over 5 acre parcels.
2006-09-11 08:18:59 · answer #1 · answered by skyeblue 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It just depends.A parcel of land can be 1 acre 2 acres, .50 Acres.
2006-09-11 15:16:21 · answer #2 · answered by j_911_rhoads 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
could be one or 40, or even more. A "parcel" is any piece of land that is conveyed intact. It might consist of 100 acres, 1000 acres, or a fraction of an acre.
2006-09-11 15:15:14 · answer #3 · answered by MOM KNOWS EVERYTHING 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A "parcel" is not a specific acreage.
By definition, it means "portion." And one can divide 40 acres (or any other amount) into an infinite number of parcels.
A legal definition of a parcel:
A contiguous area of land described in a single description by a deed or other instrument or as one of a number of lots on a plat or plan, separately owned and capable of being separately conveyed.
2006-09-11 15:21:22 · answer #4 · answered by johntadams3 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
uhm....40. they are usually sold in 1 acre parcels.
2006-09-11 15:16:55 · answer #5 · answered by daddysboicub 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋