meaning that Mary pray to her son? or you guys have better explanation on this.but Mary then marry joseph. is this a sin by having two so called husband?
2006-09-10 06:50:16 · 19 answers · asked by luqman_hakim 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
dear flower. god is great. when he create something, He surely make it simple so that we human being can understand it. do you know that jesus ate, drink, sleep like us? if he were god, sure he will use all his miracle.
2006-09-10 06:57:35 · update #1
salam, hakiim and goodpoint. i have been trying to prove a simalir thing wrong. the trinity andi succeded but they deny the truth. see if they belive that god is three in one like ur father is ur grandmans son ur father and mothers husband thas wrong. see where did i come in the story of the trinty. it only talkes about jesus himself and his mother. so its as if they are saying jesus is his fatherself, he is himselfs son, and marys son. see that dosent make sence but they still belive i it and they are denying the truth ok salam hakim.
2006-09-10 07:00:01 · answer #1 · answered by servant of AR-RAHIM mostMERCIFUL 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You are trying to mislead the people about Jesus no one can prove Mary marry anybody except for Joseph, Jesus has no biological father he was conceived by the help of the holy spirit that's why an angel was sent to Joseph to explain that Marry did have any other man and yes Mary pray to her son because inside the man he brought out to this world is a god to be worship.
Jesus don't do unnecessary miracle its the work the devil
are you an anti Christ you are confusing the people about the
logic of god turning it to your own illogical thinking
Before u ask give us proof like where u get marry having two husband don't conclude by yourself
2006-09-10 15:22:19 · answer #2 · answered by djurrel 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are 3 good reason why marry is human and jesus is god.
1.The way marry gave birth to jesus. As per scientific explanation jusus was born in A-sexual way. Baby with out normal sex, which doesn’t have 46 chromosomes.
2.He has worldly wisdom to perform miracles and to give life to dead.
3.Came back to life after 3 days from crucifixion.
Do you know the terms heat and cold, day and night why do you use these words. Just for the sake of identifying we use the term cold but actually the term cold is not the right word. It just implies that there is not heat. Actual word to be used is not heat but we use cold. That is logical for us right. We say day and night because its logical for us. Why there is not such terms as dark or night only the word day and light is only there. For defining the no light we use the word dark and night. Same way the logic in this world is going unreasoned and it is impossible to give a rational explanation for each and ever logic.
2006-09-10 14:08:30 · answer #3 · answered by arunabraham2020 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nono no no no...
Jesus is a hybrid. Half man, half God.
He was God inseminated into a human egg.
therefore, he is a Godman.--unlike any other.
Even if some christians say he wasn't GOD himself- which really makes their religion pointless--since we are ALL God's children...
anyway, they would have to admit they think he is HALF god, if they believe in divine conception.
So then Fetal Jesus was the product of God sperm and Human woman egg. He was a hybrid of God and man.
OR it could be that Mary and Joseph or some other dude got it on and out popped Jesus--
I'm Glad Joseph made Mary an honest woman to keep her from being stoned..........
2006-09-10 14:03:44 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary bore the Son of God as a normal birth , Jesus was of flesh as he was born to die on the cross so our sins may be forgiven. He bore human pain plus the pain of all our sin which was great. Mary did not have two husbands. Joseph was her husband,God, the Holy Spirit and Jesus are Holy Trinity.
2006-09-10 13:56:18 · answer #5 · answered by cornishmaid 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well God isn't Marys husband. The Holy spirit gave Mary Jesus and she had him. She might have prayed to him in Father form.(The trinity)
2006-09-10 14:00:56 · answer #6 · answered by gooberhimer 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Mary had a son whom the angel said she was to name "Jesus" and he would be called "Son of God"
Jesus also said he was ascending to heaven to "his God" as stated at John 20:17--"Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God." (So how could he be God?)
The Bible mentions several times that Jesus sits at God's right hand. Hebrews 10:12--"But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;"
Other Scriptures to read are Luke 22:69, Mark 16:19, Acts 7:55,56, Romans 8:34, Colossians 3:1, Hebrews 12:2 and 1Peter 3:22
God also exalted Jesus to be a Prince and Saviour as Acts 5:31 states: "Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins."
So no---it is not logical
2006-09-10 15:01:16 · answer #7 · answered by Micah 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It isn't logical. No one is really human. We are all apart of the Universal Soul, God. Therefore, we all have a slight bit of God in us. Once you have reached total enlightenment, you become God. You are God. Everyone who has been enlightened is God. That's what I believe, anyways.
2006-09-10 13:55:30 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, this is faith. Yes, Mary does pray to her son. God wasn't Mary's husband even though he is Jesus' father. Geeze! Mary only had one husband, ever, Joseph.
2006-09-10 13:53:01 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Mary's son was Jesus......not God.
2006-09-10 13:57:09 · answer #10 · answered by melissa 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋