Galatians 3:13 says specifically that Jesus was cursed: Christ redeemed us from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us--for it is written, "CURSED IS EVERYONE WHO HANGS ON A TREE"--
This a quote of Deuteronomy 21:22-23 "If a man has committed a sin worthy of death and he is put to death, and you hang him on a tree, 23 his corpse shall not hang all night on the tree, but you shall surely bury him on the same day (for he who is hanged is accursed of God), so that you do not defile your land which the LORD your God gives you as an inheritance.
But the curse on Jehoiakim is one of those areas where Christians try to have it both ways, where they will claim Jesus is a descendant of David through Jehoiakim and thus fulfills the prophecy of the Messiah, but then claim his father is God and not Joseph so he's not under the curse since he isn't of Jehoiakim's line. The gospel writers invent prophecies for Jesus to fulfill that appear nowhere in scripture ("he shall be called a Nazarene"), conflate pieces of different prophecies into a new prophecy, invent a census under Quirinius requiring return to place of birth so they can argue Jesus born in Bethelem. They invent the slaughter of the innocents to make him a Moses figure as they do the flight to Egypt. Truth and proof doesn't matter much to religionists, so don't expect your objection to cause mass deconversion.
2006-09-10 02:29:48
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Jesus was and is the only begotten Son of God the Father (John 3:16) so the human genealogy might not be that pertain-able. The genealogies in Matthew and Luke differ from each other (Luke through Mary, Matthew through Joseph), just to show us that human genealogies are not that important (and not that exact, for that matter). I read the genealogy in Matthew (Matthew 1:6-16) in the Young's Literal Translation and I didn't see the name Jehoiakim there. In Luke 1:32 the angel Gabriel told Mary that God would give Jesus the throne of David.
It is better to refer to a non-Alexandrian text, because the Alexandrian texts are corrupted (e.g. NIV, NASB).
2006-09-10 09:28:05
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answer #2
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answered by Dirk S 2
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That's why there are two lineages. [Solomon & Nathan] One traces Mary's line, the other Joesph's. One was for the legalists, one for the chosen and therefore made Jesus the universal sacrifice and not just for the Jews. Those that depended on the legal right, was impossible because of the curse and they HAD to look to Jesus as the universal savior.
On the other hand: Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us, for it is written: “Cursed is everyone who is hung on a tree.” according to Galatians 3:13
2006-09-10 09:24:10
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answer #3
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answered by Jay Z 6
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The human Jesus has been cursed by the behavior of his followers. He didn't die on the cross but his eternal soul has been crucified by the actions in his name every since.
2006-09-10 09:01:52
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answer #4
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answered by American Spirit 7
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That was the linage of Joseph, but Christ is not of Joseph's linage.
Check out Mary's Linage, from her he is of the King line that is not cursed, and also of the line of high priest, on the order of Melchizedek!
2006-09-10 13:41:31
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answer #5
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answered by Grandreal 6
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Where the heck have you been the last 2000 years?
2006-09-10 09:00:58
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answer #6
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answered by nbr660 6
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no...you should keep reading and if that dosent answer your quwstion you should talk to a pastor, or youth pastor...they'll help you understand.
2006-09-10 09:00:46
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answer #7
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answered by hannahgirl333 2
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I dont think so
2006-09-10 09:05:20
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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cough*crazy*cough
2006-09-10 09:04:07
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answer #9
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answered by choicheonsuh 2
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no
2006-09-10 08:59:35
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answer #10
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answered by jaynemynx 3
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