Recently a Jokey was arrested by the police on charges of RAPE. The woman complained to the police that he has been continuesly raping her since the last four years saying that he and his wife can not get along and he wants to marry her. And, the police have arrested the said Jockey. At the most it could be a breach of promise of marriage. How could it be a case of rape?
2006-09-10 00:26:30 · 11 answers · asked by Naazneen D 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
No, Naazneen D, it is not rape... You hit the nail on the head. However, in some jurisdictions anyone who cries rape gets the charge brought against the 'rapist' and then they sort it out in court...
Kind of a stupid way of doing things but this prevents the cops from acting as judge and jury and is aimed at being fair to the victim (or should I say complainant) so that the mayor's/police chief's/etc.son isn't able to work the system as you see on TV shows...
2006-09-10 00:29:21 · answer #1 · answered by Nitrox Frogy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1. An arrest is not a conviction. To make an arrest you only need probable cause. probable cause in this case is a statement by the victim that she was raped. At trial the evidence will be evaluated. It may never even go to trial, depending upon the prosecutor.
2. Rape is non-consensual sex. Sounds like the victim may have consented, regardless of whether or not the perp scammed her. If this were the case then every dude with a pickup line at your local bar would be guilty.
2006-09-10 02:58:58 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
In common law, there's a crime called "seduction," defined as inducing, by promise of marriage, an unmarried woman to engage in intercourse. Here's an article about it from the 1911 Encyclopedia Britannica: http://encyclopedia.jrank.org/SCY_SHA/SEDUCTION_from_Lat_seducere_to_.html
It's still on the bar exam in the US, but many (if not most) states have done away with it as a crime. I wouldn't be surprised, though, if there are some places where it is still technically a crime. Adultery was also a crime in the bad old days...
In any event, you cannot have rape unless there is a lack of consent.
2006-09-10 05:34:14 · answer #3 · answered by Taro Shinsei 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
In the US, it's not rape. It's unfortunate, and cruel, and cold hearted. But it's not rape. Marriage is viewed so lightly in our society, that there is nothing even approaching a breach of a promise of marriage on the books here. That's also unfortunate that we view things that important so casually.
2006-09-10 00:37:38 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No skill no, in spite of the relationship between the two rather everyone seems to be. as a result, it rather is rape. era. in spite of the fact that, if the sufferer does not protest throughout intercourse, it rather is not rape (except she's subconscious). And no, basically with the aid of fact 2 rather everyone seems to be married does no longer mean that the spouse has given consent to having intercourse each time. it rather is her physique, she would manage to assert no if she needs to. If MY husband have been to drag some crap like that, i could divorce him. No skill no. to assert otherwise is easy IGNORANT, and purely extra victimizes people who've survived sexual attack. there have been circumstances I protested till now-hand...yet throughout, in no way, and that i do no longer evaluate that to be rape. a female does not ought to especially say that she supplies consent, to be certain that intercourse to be consensual. besides the undeniable fact that, it rather is respectful to ask a female if that's what she needs to do. i've got been by the two, thank you, i comprehend the style. As on your examples: A. confident, this is rape. it rather is consensual till the 2nd of them says no. After that, it rather is rape. B. this is iffy. It relies upon on HOW drunk the spouse replaced into. frequently it rather is basically rape if the female replaced into too drunk to furnish consent. C. If there replaced into penetration, and it continued after the spouse stated no, then confident, it replaced into rape. in spite of the fact that, if a individual (contained regarding your occasion, the husband) have been given frisky interior the middle of the nighttime, it rather is not rape except his spouse says no, and he maintains.
2016-11-07 00:49:57 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can only refer to the term of "rape" when one of the persons involved in the sexual act did it unwillingly. In all the other cases, it's not rape, but revenge.
2006-09-10 00:38:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
this is unreal.why after 4 years you would still be with this person is beyond me,after the first time i would have took the hint.he has no intention of leaving his beloved wife
2006-09-11 10:17:51 · answer #7 · answered by Martha A 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If rape is made legal, these problems will dissappear.
2016-04-23 06:30:29 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If this is true, it is ridiculous. That is one of the oldest lines in the book.
2006-09-10 01:47:29 · answer #9 · answered by kimba 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no rape just a pissed off gal
2006-09-10 02:43:14 · answer #10 · answered by aldo 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋