Never in the Bible have I seen a line that binds the Son of Man as Jesus. In fact, curiously, in the same sentence Jesus refers to the Son of Man in third person and to him self in the first.
Matthew 19:28
Jesus said to them, "I tell you the truth, at the renewal of all things, when the Son of Man sits on his glorious throne, you who have followed me will also sit on twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.
Also it is clear that the Holy Spirit is not the Son of Man in Matthew.
Matthew 12:32
Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come.
Also the Son of Man is referred ad nauseam in Ezekial even know it was known in Isaiah that Jesus would be known as Immanuel. Why not say Immanuel instead of Son of Man?
Is the Son of Man, someone else? Is there yet another fourth Divine entity compassing a quartet and not a trinity?
2006-08-14 12:11:15 · 9 answers · asked by Brent B 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The "son of man" is reference to Daniel 7. I reccomend you read the whole chapter to understand it in it's context, eventhough Daniel's dreams are really messed up. But verse 13- I saw, in the night visions,and, behold, one like the Son of man came, the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days,and they brought him near before him.
Dan 7:14 And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed.
It's referencing the prophecy, and Jesus used son of man to express to the Jewish people who He was and is. The should have understood son of man from the OT
2006-08-14 12:29:05 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus frequently referred to Himself in the 3rd person. once in response to a query he said "the Son of Man has no place to lay His head" referring to the fact that He had no room that night
2006-08-14 19:17:59 · answer #2 · answered by kapute2 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Basically the son of man is anybody that isn't a higher being than god, or jesus, and the holy ghost. Jesus was not conceived in a regular way his mother was marry and his father was God. He's not born of "man". He's half man and half god which made him able to die for our sins.
2006-08-14 19:17:12 · answer #3 · answered by bubba06 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe Jesus wasn't as particular about grammar as you are.
Bob Dole said to them, "I tell you the truth, at the renewal of all things, when the Bob Dole sits on his glorious throne, you who have followed me will also sit on twelve thrones"
2006-08-14 19:17:30 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
how can a ghost be the Son of a Man?
the son of man refers to the Messiah. Now if Jesus was the son of G-d it could not be him either
2006-08-14 19:16:51 · answer #5 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Son of Man was JESUS.
The son of Man refer's to the Human Body JESUS Lived in and We Live in.
That's as far as I have gotten on this Subject.
Hope this helps.
2006-08-14 19:18:26 · answer #6 · answered by maguyver727 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was speaking in third person, while referring to himself, since his disciples didn't undertand fully who he was.>
2006-08-14 19:16:01 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the "OT", "son of man" usually just means "people". just like "son of mitzva" (bar mitzva) refers to anyone obligated to keep the commandments. It was just how they spoke.
2006-08-14 19:16:48 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
jesus
2006-08-14 19:18:02 · answer #9 · answered by ssgtusmc3013 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋