Are not the words 'satan' and 'devil' used figuratively to describe the natural sinful tendencies within us? The connection between the devil and our evil desires - sin within us - is made explicit in several passages: "As the children (ourselves) are partakers of flesh and blood, he (Jesus) also himself likewise took part of the same; that through (his) death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil" (Heb.2:14). The devil is here described as being responsible for death. But "the wages of sin is death" (Rom.6:23). Therefore sin and the devil must be parallel.
2006-08-14
06:47:20
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malisimo
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
"Now shall the prince of this world be cast out."
"The prince of the power of the air" is identified with sin in Eph. 2:2, 3. Notice the parallel structure: "And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins; wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, {Greek: "aion" of this "kosmos"} . . . the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience." "The prince of this world" which had nothing in Christ was sin. The outward appearances in the death of Christ were deceptive since it appeared as if he were condemned, when it was the sin which was cast out and condemned. (Rom. 8:3). This personification of sin is in the pattern of other Scriptures. Sin is compared with a master who pays wages (Rom. 6:23), a slave owner from whom men are emancipated that they might serve God (Rom. 6:17), a reigning monarch (Rom. 5:21), and as indwelling with men. (Rom. 7:17).
2006-08-14
07:08:42 ·
update #1