2006-08-14 00:12:49 · 7 answers · asked by Miss Hot Rose 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Because they are important to who he is:
Tamar is listed because she became pregnant when she tricked her father-in-law (Judah) into having sex with her. She is included to show that, even though her children were illegitimate, God still accepts them into his family.
Rahab is listed because she was a non-Jew who by her faith was accepted into the Jewish covenant. Shows that God accepts anyone with faith.
Ruth is listed because she was a Moabite (non-Jew) who was accepted into the Jewish covenant because of her love for God. Shows that God extends his salvation to anyone of any race that comes to love him.
Solomon's mother is mentioned, but as having been Uriah's wife. David had an affair with her, while she was still married to Uriah, and then arranged for Uriah to be killed in a battle. But because of David's (or her) repentence, she was still able to be part of the line of Jesus. Shows that God forgives.
Each of the previous 4 women is unique in that as a mother through incest, or as a prostitue, or as a non-Jew, or as a "mistress", they should not have had a convenant with God. But He was able to redeem each of them and offer them a place in His family.
And of course Mary...
Notice that is you count, there are 14 generations from Abraham to David, 14 generations from David to the exile, but only 13 generations from the exile to Christ. That missing generation is Mary. She is counted separately from Joseph. It is not Matthan to Jacob to Joseph to Jesus. It is Matthan to Jacob to Joseph to MARY to Jesus. Because Joseph was not the father, God was through the virgin birth. So Mary to be included as the "14" generation to make the genealogy correct.
2006-08-14 00:28:47 · answer #1 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because they wanted to make so sure you knew jesus was in the right gene pool that in Mathew they trace back Mary's bloodline to the davidic kingly bloodline and then in Luke, they trace back joseph's bloodline to david and, in that case all the way back to adam. That's why when jesus was on earth, the pharisees could never use the objection to him that he didn't fit in to the bloodline of david. He did on both sides!
2006-08-14 07:19:59 · answer #2 · answered by No More No Less 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't really know. But I can guess it's to show his lineage, as a royal heir. The author of Matthew had that as his theme, when he wrote the book. Son of David and all that. Do you have any ideas?
2006-08-14 07:19:57 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think that this shows an "alternate" route for His genealogy back to David.
2006-08-14 07:18:55 · answer #4 · answered by RB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The only way to link Jesus to David was through women. He has no earthly father, so he could not be descended from David and fulfill the prophecy through his daddy.
Which demonstrates it is a lie since men inherited tribal affiliation through daddies, not mommies.
2006-08-14 07:18:04 · answer #5 · answered by Left the building 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
USING WOMEN IN GENEOLOGY WOULD ATTRACT ATTENTION IN PATRIARCHAL SOCIETY. Matthew wanted to emphasize that Jesus was human and came from imperfect humans Himself. God was willing to humble Himself to come to Earth as man (and still God)--TO BE BORN OF SINNERS! to save us.
These particular women that He mentions are far from saints, yet still make up the family of Jesus Our Lord. It is another example of His great MERCY and FORGIVENESS.
2006-08-14 07:24:48 · answer #6 · answered by CatholicMOM 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I was going to answer just what dewcoons did. Good answer!
2006-08-14 07:36:57 · answer #7 · answered by midlandsharon 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋